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Maximum Pass.


Winstonm

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This discussion somehow reminds me of a hand I had about half a year ago, a 4-4-1-4 18-count. I opened 1C and the auction was

 

1C - (Dbl) - Rdbl* - all pass.

 

Partner's redouble was a transfer to diamonds, I had four excellent clubs, they were red (so were we) and I decided to try to penalize them. Little did I expect them to pass out 1CXX. Partner had a big hand with a stiff club. I made four (yes, 1CXX+3) which scored slightly less than the slam at the other table. (if this is incorrect than it was 1CXX+2, it has been a while)

 

 

I should have applied Grainger's rule.

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This discussion somehow reminds me of a hand I had about half a year ago, a 4-4-1-4 18-count. I opened 1C and the auction was

 

1C - (Dbl) - Rdbl* - all pass.

 

Partner's redouble was a transfer to diamonds, I had four excellent clubs, they were red (so were we) and I decided to try to penalize them. Little did I expect them to pass out 1CXX. Partner had a big hand with a stiff club. I made four (yes, 1CXX+3) which scored slightly less than the slam at the other table. (if this is incorrect than it was 1CXX+2, it has been a while)

 

 

I should have applied Grainger's rule.

This reminds me of another little agreement: how many have this down?

 

1C-X-XX-P?

 

Most play this as "save yourself". This seems somewhat wasted to me, so partner and I have decided this is a "penalty" pass, saying 1C XX is fine with us. What else you doing to do with:

 

xx, xx, xxx, KJ10984?

 

Winston

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Hello everyone

 

Playing standard methods. I play that 1C-p-p-(X)-XX shows a six card suit(or a strong five carder=AKQ109 in a pinch) and 18+ HCP. We either bid a suit of our own or try for a penalty. With a balanced

18-19, I rebid 1NT here.

 

Partner is still there after 1C-p-p-(X)-p-p-?

 

I doubt that this auction would happen playing my current methods.

 

I play a Big Club system so 1C*=16+ 'unbalanced' or 18+ balanced. :D

 

Regards,

Robert

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