Echognome Posted November 16, 2005 Report Share Posted November 16, 2005 [hv=d=e&v=n&s=skq9xxxhjxdt9caxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP(1♥) - 1♠ - (P) - 1NT(X) - ?[/hv] You play jump overcalls are weak. Still, do you bid 1♠ or 2♠ on this hand? After RHO doubles (alerted and explained as 'reopening'), do you bid 2♠ or leave it up to partner to decide what to do? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
joker_gib Posted November 16, 2005 Report Share Posted November 16, 2005 Depends on what your agreement is for the jump. I play them as intermediate (10-13 6 cards) so I would have bid 2♠ directly (lower limit). A 2♠ bid now shows 8-9 with 6 cards. If you play them weak, then you have to bid 2♠ now to show your 6th card and more than a NV weak two. Alain Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted November 16, 2005 Report Share Posted November 16, 2005 I feel 1S is just right and see no reason to do anything now other than pass - I have adequately described my hand except for the 6th spade - anytime I can bid 12 of my 13 cards I'm pretty well satisfied - there is nothing else special about my hand I need to show. Winston Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barmar Posted November 16, 2005 Report Share Posted November 16, 2005 If partner had been a passed hand, I would have bid 2♠ on my first turn. But the hand is too good for this when partner can still have a decent hand. In the given auction, I now bid 2♠, for 2 reasons: 1. It shows my 6th ♠. Hopefully partner didn't bid NT with a singleton. 2. LHO can no longer respond to the double on the 2 level. BTW, I don't think a call can legitimately be called "reopening" unless it's made in the pass-out seat. A better description of the double might be "pre-balancing", or just "takeout". Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted November 16, 2005 Report Share Posted November 16, 2005 1S the first time, 2S now. My hand does not look like a good hand to be playing in 1N (unless partner has Ax or Jx of spades, in which case 2S should be fine anyways). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted November 16, 2005 Report Share Posted November 16, 2005 My spades aren't quite good enough to sit. Pard doesn't know about my 6th spade either. I'm about a King lite for a redouble as well. If pard has a chunky 10-11 count with a stiff spade and we were making 1N on power and 2♠ is down on a 4-2 or 5-1 split, I'll apologize. But pulling seems right and I can't imagine pard rescuing himself on this auction. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted November 16, 2005 Report Share Posted November 16, 2005 2♠. There are a lot of hands where pard has 2 spads and won't pull out. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Al_U_Card Posted November 16, 2005 Report Share Posted November 16, 2005 Except for the MP considerations (this is an IMP question after all) 2S would be automatic, imo. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted November 16, 2005 Report Share Posted November 16, 2005 I prefer to bid 2S directly. Having bid 1S I would now bid 2S. This seems safer as well as somewhat preemptive. I am intriged by Winston's comment. Which 12 cards do you describe by passing 1NT? I'm willing to concede 11 cards: 5-2-2-2, as you would probably bid with a 4-minor (of course you could be 5-4-3-1 or 5-4-1-3). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luis Posted November 16, 2005 Report Share Posted November 16, 2005 1♠ looks fine and now 2♠ is so clear that I'm sure you bid 2♠ and something bad happened. If that is the case the jury finds you not guilty and you can go. Luis Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tysen2k Posted November 16, 2005 Report Share Posted November 16, 2005 1♠2♠ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Echognome Posted November 16, 2005 Author Report Share Posted November 16, 2005 1♠ looks fine and now 2♠ is so clear that I'm sure you bid 2♠ and something bad happened. If that is the case the jury finds you not guilty and you can go. LuisLOL. You are half right Luis. Nothing bad happened. Partner turned up with: ♠ x♥ AQxx♦ Qxxxx♣ xxx And the spade and surprisingly the heart were both onside and I scrambled home for 8 tricks. The bad thing that happened is that partner had a go at me afterwards for not leaving the decision up to him. He said that perhaps he would want to redouble, but not on his actual hand. I thought 2♠ was clear. I'm glad the jury (as Luis puts it) agree with me. :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted November 17, 2005 Report Share Posted November 17, 2005 when your partner had a go at you, did you ask what he'd have done if you passed? 2s looks automatic to me... hannie, can you really afford to overcall 2s earlier? just because your rho opened doesn't mean you don't have game, and if you do it'd be hard to find it after a preempt... course i could be wrong Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted November 17, 2005 Report Share Posted November 17, 2005 If you judged your hand too good for a 2♠ overcall, then you have to be consistent and bid 2♠ now. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
joker_gib Posted November 17, 2005 Report Share Posted November 17, 2005 ♠ x♥ AQxx♦ Qxxxx♣ xxx Btw, I don't know if I would have bid 1NT with that hand ! I think I would have pass And you, guys ?? Alain Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted November 17, 2005 Report Share Posted November 17, 2005 Btw, I don't know if I would have bid 1NT with that hand ! I think I would have pass And you, guys ?? Alain I would bid 1N but pass is very reasonable. Some of it depends on your style about overcalling vs Xing then bidding a new suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted November 17, 2005 Report Share Posted November 17, 2005 I prefer to bid 2S directly. Having bid 1S I would now bid 2S. This seems safer as well as somewhat preemptive. I am intriged by Winston's comment. Which 12 cards do you describe by passing 1NT? I'm willing to concede 11 cards: 5-2-2-2, as you would probably bid with a 4-minor (of course you could be 5-4-3-1 or 5-4-1-3).IMO, I have nothing extra I didn't show the first time around - except the additional spade. My partner heard me overcall, saying in essense one of three things: 1) I have a good spade suit if you need to find a lead. 2) I have a fair hand with spades if we can compete. 3) I have a pretty good hand with spades and we might have a game. My partner heard what I had to say and in essence is saying, if you hold #2 then I have enough to compete but competing in NT looks better than in spades. My hand has a source of tricks for NT, an entry, and some intermediates and spot cards that could be useful - and when the hearts are divided 5224 around the table, it will be extremely difficult for RHO to score and uppercut trump trick with the spade 10 in a NT contract. And if my Jx of hearts is to be of value, it is more so in NT than in spades. I have an edge in that my partner would be extremely unlikely to bid 1N on a stiff spade, so I play the numbers and expect to be able to score 5 spade tricks on the anticipated 3/2 break and Ace onside. I don't have great ruffing value, I'm balanced, and my suit isn't all that great. IMO, 2S should say I strongly disagree with your assessment that NT is the best spot. So that is why I say I've bid 12 of my cards.....I haven't clarified my holding, which is a second round duty, but when I pass next I'm most likely 5233 or 6223. A normal hand for partner is: xx, K10xx, QJxx, KJx. If RHO can get in with either the diamond King or the spade Ace, I we will lose 2 diamonds, 2 hearts, and 2 spades because of the uppercut. With a balanced hand and the Jx of hearts and 109 of diamonds, I'll take my chances in 1N. Winston Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trpltrbl Posted November 17, 2005 Report Share Posted November 17, 2005 2♠, this play better in a suitcontract. GBB :blink: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted November 18, 2005 Report Share Posted November 18, 2005 2S. If I did not jump the round before (3S),why should I jump now? With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted November 18, 2005 Report Share Posted November 18, 2005 I prefer to bid 2S directly.<snip> Assuming 2S is weak, would you not bid 2S also without the Ace? If I preempt, 3S ... which may be greator not, but 2S with / without the Ace will makeit harder for partner to judge, if 4S is worth bidding. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Kalvan14 Posted November 19, 2005 Report Share Posted November 19, 2005 1♠ at 1st round (but 2♠ if pard were a passed hand, and 2♠ now). No problem on this bid.I might have some issues with 1NT with 8 HCP, and a singleton in spades. I have to assume you play much sounder overcalls than I (or my partner) do. I would pass, with his hand and wait for better tidings :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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