Guest Jlall Posted October 11, 2005 Report Share Posted October 11, 2005 After 1N p 4D/4H texas, what is required for a lead directing X? Can it be made on AKx? AJTx? AK doubleton? Stiff A? Void? Does it depend on the vulnerability? Since it is unlikely that they will end up in 4D/4H XX (although with a void...) this lead directing X could offer much more flexibility than a X of a jacoby transfer. However, partner may get the brilliant idea to save. Can partner ever save? How many diamonds minimum should he expect from the Xer? I ask because recently at all vul equal at MP I had AQx x QTxxx J9xx. Auction started 1N p 4D X 4H and I was not sure if I could save or not. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted October 11, 2005 Report Share Posted October 11, 2005 I want to go back a step.What should the double of a 4D transfer response to 1NT mean?OK, without discussion it's lead directional. But: I play 1NT P 2D (xfer) double as showing a strong, usually balanced, hand.I play the double of a 4D Texas opener (good 4S pre-empt) as showing a strong, usually balanced-ish hand (double then double penalty-ish, pass then double pure take-out). So it's not inconceivable that one should play something similar: 1NT P 4D (x) could be played as one of- strong balanced (less useful after a strong NT or if 4D shows a slam try)- take-out of hearts I rather like take-out of hearts. That implies you hold some diamonds so aren't going to play there, and it allowed partner bid over 4H, or make a t/o double, with impunity. Yes, I know you could bid 4H as t/o (Michaels) but it's much safer just to double. Wouldn't you just love to be able to act at favourable holding Kxxxx-KJxxxAxx with virtually no risk? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted October 11, 2005 Report Share Posted October 11, 2005 Do you play Xing a jacoby transfer as strong bal after a strong NT too? I play this over wk NT but haven't tried it vs strong, I would guess lead directing would be more frequent in that case but honestly have no clue. Playing X of texas as takeout of hearts seems ok, but I was mainly curious assuming you did play lead directing Xs what the standard would be to make one. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted October 11, 2005 Report Share Posted October 11, 2005 I suppose it depends on the vulnerability. If its save-time, then double should be a save suggestion - at least 5 pieces. If its adverse, then double can be whatever you want led - including stiff aces. It depends on the rest of your hand of course. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trpltrbl Posted October 12, 2005 Report Share Posted October 12, 2005 4♥ is a 3 suited TO.4NT is 2 suited TO for the minorsDouble is 2 suited TO ♠ and minor. GBB :D Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted October 12, 2005 Report Share Posted October 12, 2005 A passed hand cannot suggest a save, logically, so the double by that person can be anything, even mild interest in the lead. A save against a strong notrump into a five-level contract seems remote, so I'd also take a double of a 4H transfer to spades, after a strong NT, as mild+ lead directive. A 4S save after strong 1NT-P-4D seems plausible, buty will 4D, showing diamonds and spades, be of use? Naw!!! Just whip out 4H and be done with it. So, any double after a strong 1NT should be mild+ lead directive. How about Texas after a weak 1NT, doubling by an unpassed hand? Assuming that Michaels would be useful here in resolving takeout scenarios, and pass...double to handle "optional," the immediate double could logically show a weak takeout (delayed double being defense-oriented/penalty) or lead-directional. Not sure which would be best, but my heart says that an immediate double should suggest declaring and a delayed double defending. Fortunately, few playTexas after a weak NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted October 12, 2005 Report Share Posted October 12, 2005 On the actual hand I bid 5D and it was a good save, pard having AJ9x. The opps bid 5H though and went down so it was even better. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Blofeld Posted October 12, 2005 Report Share Posted October 12, 2005 A passed hand cannot suggest a save, logically, so the double by that person can be anything, even mild interest in the lead. Could you explain the logic here? I can't follow it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted October 12, 2005 Report Share Posted October 12, 2005 Why can't a passed hand suggest a save? First, you passed. With values to justify a possible save, you normally would have opened, perhaps preemptively. If the double suggests a save into diamonds, you presumably have diamond length. Normally, 3D would have been opened on a sufficient hand -- otherwise, you need a huge offensive hand from partner to justify a 5D sac. Second, even if possible to construct such a hand (probably requiring four of the other major), these hands often feature partner making his own competitive call, over 1NT. Responder's long suit, couple with your 6-4 pattern, leaves a lot of clubs. Your mutual weakness suggests values to justify a call from partner. Third, even if one can construct a hand appropriate to suggest sacrifice, partner passing, the utility of such a meaning is vastly less likely than the utility of a simple lead-director without concern for a phantom sacrifice. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted October 13, 2005 Report Share Posted October 13, 2005 I would certainly expect some length to go with some high cards, and a strong dislike of any other lead: so not much in the non-trump suits. KQ10x is about the worst I would hold. I do not believe that over texas this should 'suggest' a save: I think partner is permitted to consider a save but if so does it based on his shape and at least a 5 card fit: since doubler (for me) should hold 4 but does not promise any more than that. I would certainly double 4♦ with xxx xxx KQJ10 xxx at any vulnerability, and obviously this is not exactly textbook shape for a save :D However, with your hand, I like the save very much. Partner's ♦ are a little less than I would expect: to me asking for a ♦ lead from xxx into my AJ9x with declarer sitting behind me with power is poor: I'd rather you made your ordinary lead, which might save a tempo... but it is very close. Your hand is great for taking the save: shape, good fit, AQx over the likely King, partner probably not ultra short in ♥ etc. There is some risk of 800, but I'd expect 500 and there is that wonderful upside of +100. I used to play disaster-avoidance bridge, but learned 10 years ago that disaster-creating bridge is both more fun and more productive: your 5♦ created the potential for them to have a disaster and it worked: good bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted October 13, 2005 Report Share Posted October 13, 2005 Why can't a passed hand suggest a save? First, you passed. With values to justify a possible save, you normally would have opened, perhaps preemptively. If the double suggests a save into diamonds, you presumably have diamond length. Normally, 3D would have been opened on a sufficient hand -- otherwise, you need a huge offensive hand from partner to justify a 5D sac. Second, even if possible to construct such a hand (probably requiring four of the other major), these hands often feature partner making his own competitive call, over 1NT. Responder's long suit, couple with your 6-4 pattern, leaves a lot of clubs. Your mutual weakness suggests values to justify a call from partner. Third, even if one can construct a hand appropriate to suggest sacrifice, partner passing, the utility of such a meaning is vastly less likely than the utility of a simple lead-director without concern for a phantom sacrifice.While this is articulated very well, it makes no sense. First, you passed. With values to justify a possible save, you normally would have opened, perhaps preemptively. If the double suggests a save into diamonds, you presumably have diamond length. Normally, 3D would have been opened on a sufficient hand -- otherwise, you need a huge offensive hand from partner to justify a 5D sac. Why do I need 7 to suggest a save? Why can't we find our 5-4, or 5-5 or 6-4 save? Second, even if possible to construct such a hand (probably requiring four of the other major), these hands often feature partner making his own competitive call, over 1NT. Responder's long suit, couple with your 6-4 pattern, leaves a lot of clubs. Your mutual weakness suggests values to justify a call from partner. If we are saving, I don't want my pard to have defense. If anything, the lack of a call over 1N suggests less values, not more. Third, even if one can construct a hand appropriate to suggest sacrifice, partner passing, the utility of such a meaning is vastly less likely than the utility of a simple lead-director without concern for a phantom sacrifice I might agree with this if you had some justification. Hard to quantify lead-directing benefits versus sac potential in a vacuum. I (still) think that vulnerability plays a major role here. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pigpenz Posted October 13, 2005 Report Share Posted October 13, 2005 I know one of the problems i always run into is what is1nt pass 2♦ 2♥1nt pass 4♦ 4♥ these should be some form of 2/3 suit take out so double is either purely lead directing or one suited with diamonds, or like you say can be balanced 15-17. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Blofeld Posted October 13, 2005 Report Share Posted October 13, 2005 Don't think that's necessarily true, pigpenz. In particular, as Frances pointed out, after (1N) P (4♦), bidding 4♥ is dangerous, whereas if you can make a 'takeout' double then it's much safer to suggest a save. I like the question of whether it's permissible to double with a void. I wouldn't at the table for fear that partner would sacrifice on our 'fit', but I'm not sure whether it ought to be permissible. My inclination is that suggesting a save somewhere is going to be more useful that lead directing with a void. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Al_U_Card Posted October 13, 2005 Report Share Posted October 13, 2005 I know one of the problems i always run into is what is1nt pass 2♦ 2♥1nt pass 4♦ 4♥ these should be some form of 2/3 suit take out I use a michaels type bid so that after 2D, 2H shows S and clubs, 2NT is the minors and 3C is D and H. As far as lead direction goes, at the higher level, the less you need lots of cards in the transfer suit but the more you want it to be headed by the ace. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pigpenz Posted October 13, 2005 Report Share Posted October 13, 2005 trouble is if you double with a void and then it goes recrank then you better have a place to go :P Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted October 13, 2005 Report Share Posted October 13, 2005 Back to the original question (assuming X is lead direct): I think doubling with a void (or singleton A) is too dangerous. However, wouldn't you always like X with AK or KQT? I don't think requiring a 4-card suit so that partner can save with a 5-card suit is the right percentage thing. Of course, it is still very likely that partner has a 4-card suit, so you might still gamble 5♦ with distribution and a 5-card suit. Arend Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted October 13, 2005 Report Share Posted October 13, 2005 I think that you can play it both ways: lead directing with or without a suit. I prefer it to be a pure lead-director at the 4-level but showing at least a five card suit at the 2-level (assuming 1NT is strong). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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