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Black two-suiters


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The following hand came up during a practice bidding session with an excellent bridge partner that raises the issue of how to distinguish between two types of hands that differ by only one card. The first hand was the actual one dealt. The second has been constructed for the purpose of this post.

 

Hand A:

AQJxxx

x

x

AK8xx

 

 

You open 1S, partner responds 2 diamonds. What is your plan for bidding this hand. Should you choose a 3-club rebid, partner will then rebid 3NT. What is your choice then?

 

 

 

Hand B: constructed for contrast

AQJxx

xx

x

AK8xx

 

 

How do you bid this hand? For starters, not playing some specialized opener (e.g., no 2S opener to show C-S 2-suiter), what would be your opening bid? If you select 1 spade, partner will respond 2 diamonds. Take it from there. The implications of how you all handle these two hands might or might not be as significant as I perceive.

 

as always, thank you all in advance.

 

DHL

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My excellent bridge partner had a similar hand when praticing some bidding yesterday. :rolleyes:

 

I had xx AQx AQxxx Jxx. Over 4C, I didn't know whether partner was 6-5 or rather very strong with 5-5. We got to 6C, which seems ok. I don;t know how to distinguish between those two kinds of hands either.

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To foment more discussion: are you saying that a 4C bid strongly suggests a 6-card spade suit (the key issue IMO), and/or a very strong 5-card club suit such as AKQxx?

I always have problems with these inferences and seem to get them wrong.

What agreements do you have regarding the meaning of responder's next bid over 4C? (e.g.: 4D = cue establishing clubs, what do 4H and 4NT mean? Is 4S/4C a simple preference showing xx of spades and denying slam interest [insufficient aces in the red suits] or is it forward-going showing Hx or even stiff high honor?)

 

again, TIA

 

DHL

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To foment more discussion: are you saying that a 4C bid strongly suggests a 6-card spade suit (the key issue IMO), and/or a very strong 5-card club suit such as AKQxx?

I always have problems with these inferences and seem to get them wrong.

What agreements do you have regarding the meaning of responder's next bid over 4C? (e.g.: 4D = cue establishing clubs, what do 4H and 4NT mean? Is 4S/4C a simple preference showing xx of spades and denying slam interest [insufficient aces in the red suits] or is it forward-going showing Hx or even stiff high honor?)

 

again, TIA

 

DHL

4D=cue for clubs

4H=cue for clubs

4S=preference

4N=to play.

 

Hannie would just bid 4S with his hand over 4C and that's where you'd play (I think).

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I disagree, 4NT should not deny a control. With mostly minor honors in the red suits and close to a minimum you should bid 4NT, e.g. xx AQJx KQJxx xx should definitely bid 4NT.

Of course a matter of agreement, but how do you

know, that partner does not have a very strong 2

suiter, e.g. with singleton top hour in hearts or

diamonds?

 

He may have a freak or a strong 5-5, he asked

you to show were your honours are.

I would follow the reqeust.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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I disagree, 4NT should not deny a control. With mostly minor honors in the red suits and close to a minimum you should bid 4NT, e.g. xx AQJx KQJxx xx should definitely bid 4NT.

I agree with Hannie:

 

If one thinks about it, it most unlikely that the NT hand lacks controls: where is his bid? To me, 4NT says, "I heard you pull 3NT, I hear your warning, you have a concentrated black 2-suiter. I have a better idea of your hand than you have of mine. Given what you've told me so far, I believe that the hand should be played from my side (the 4NT bidder's side) in 4NT.

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I've been trying to decide what responder should do over 3C with Hx in spades, a good honor in clubs, and prime honors in red suits. Something like Kx, KTx, AQxxx, Qxx. IMO, I suggest a 3H rebid. Again, as in one of the recent BPO hands, the issue is how to get to a 6-2 spade fit and differentiate between xx and Hx support for spades. Use of 4th suit followed by preference to spades might be one way to differentiate, but then P might have xx in hearts and be unsure how to proceed, although I believe that a further cue bid should be like a last train showing concern about the 4th suit. Does this make sense?

 

TIA

 

DHL

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With that hand, I would bid 3H as you suggest. When partner bids 3NT I know that we have all suits under control and I would pass. Over 3S (which now doesn't show 6) I would raise. Partner would probably expect Hx in spades. (with xx xxx AKJxx KQx I would bid 4C over 3S, not 4S.)

 

Isn't bidding hands on BBO great fun!

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Han:

 

not just fun, but addicting!

 

 

I managed to virtually escape the addiction for over 15 years for the most part, maybe longer: have now had a full-blown relapse. Need detoxification. At least most of the people I have met on BBO are good and pleasant, unlike many I knew or met in the real world.

 

DHL

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With 5-5 two black suits (like hand 2), I usually open 1.

Aha,

 

An honest person who perceived the other issue involved here. Not advocating 1C or 1S as the correct opening bid (not bidding spades 1st admittedly risks pre-emption) but, should the partnership agree to open clubs first with 5-5, then this helps to clarify the 6-5 issue considerably.

 

DHL

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Second hand I pass the 3 NT.

 

But the first hand I open 2. I don't play 2 as GF but forcing to 2NT or 3 of a major.

Pd bids 2, unless extremely strong hand.

I bid 2, pd bids 2NT as relay.

I bid 3 showing black 2 suited hand, almost always at least 6-5. With most 5-5 hands we open 1 level.

Now pd can make decision.

 

GBB :rolleyes:

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