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When do you bid 2D over (1N) 2C (P) ?


kfgauss

When do you bid 2D over (1N) 2C (P) ? with (32) in the majors?  

18 members have voted

  1. 1. When do you bid 2D over (1N) 2C (P) ? with (32) in the majors?

    • Always with (32) in the majors.
      4
    • Only with 2S and 3H (partner bids 2H usually with 5-5).
      1
    • Never (always bid my 3 card suit).
      9
    • Only with HH (two honors) in the 2-card suit and xxx in the 3-card suit.
      1
    • Only with Hx (or better) in the 2-card suit and xxx in the 3-card suit.
      2
    • With 2S and 3H or with xxx-HH.
      0
    • With 2S and 3H or with xxx-Hx.
      0
    • Various considerations, including how good my hand is (please describe which of the above fits you best for each hand strength; does not include inv+ values).
      1
    • Other (please describe).
      0


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When playing that 2 over the opponents' 1NT opening (let's say strong for the purposes of this post, but comment if it's different when weak) as both majors (5-4 or better) and playing that a 2 advance asks partner to choose, when do you bid 2 with (32) in the majors?

 

Thanks,

Andy

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Never say never but...

 

To me 2D says "i have no preference" so partner would have no reason to usually bid 2H with 5-5. He will bid his better one, trying to get to the best trump suit (to preempt the argument that the weaker suit can be the better trump suit, this happens only when you have some values).

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Never say never but...

 

To me 2D says "i have no preference" so partner would have no reason to usually bid 2H with 5-5. He will bid his better one, trying to get to the best trump suit (to preempt the argument that the weaker suit can be the better trump suit, this happens only when you have some values).

Ok, thanks. I intended the "usually bids 2H with 5-5" bit to be part of the vote (there's no reason to do this if you don't choose one of the 2S and 3H options).

 

Preliminary results suggest that my thinking is wrong or at least not standard here. It's my impression that the 5-2 will play better than the 4-3 when we're weak, and so I've been bidding 2 often when my hand isn't very good and I have (32) in the majors. Does anyone have any reasoning (or simulation data) why this is or is not a good idea?

 

Andy

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Hi,

 

always bid 2D, for the reason you gave:

ensuring that you play the 5-2 fit.

 

The 5-2 fit will be safer most of the, because

the 5-2 will be more robust when you encounter

the most likely trump break (4-2).

 

For the above statement I dont need sample

data, because the reason why 5-2 is safer

most of the time obviously true.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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