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hand hog?


han

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You need to add how often you raise on 3 cards and how often you bid 1NT on a singleton (i.e. your take on the 1-3-4-5 hand shape discussion).

 

If you don't raise on 3 often and you don't ever have a stiff, I'll bid 2S. If you do raise on 3 often, but can't have a stiff, it's a bit murky but I think I'll pass. If you can have a stiff, it's an easy pass.

 

Andy

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wouldn't consider bidding 2S. 5332, mediocre suit, scattered values etc etc.

Thanks for the reasons. I habitually will bid 2S with these hands, but have used the rationale that if forcing NT auctions are made to get you to the 5-2 major fit then surely it also works the other way around (except for the lead benefit....). Figured that the more motley your crue was, the better off you were in the trump contract.

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Wow, it seem americans don't rebid their suits into the best contract, nice B)

 

Now for beginners, just think the difference into our 1.5 trticks to 1NT against the 3.5 tricks in 2+ control values against long running suits. It works this way: if partner has 3 you belong to 2, if he has 2, you won't stablish the suit in your dreams on a NT contract, and again belong to 2.

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Wow, it seem americans don't rebid their suits into the best contract, nice B)

I don't that the issue is being American, but rather not being Polish or French.... Those are the most prominant countries that absolutely insist on 4 card support to raise partner's major suit response. As for the rest of us, the 1NT rebid strongly suggests that we aren't interested in a Spade contract. We've already explictly denied 3 card Spade support and and any kind of ruffing value.

 

You could easily be pulling 1NT into a 5-1 fit...

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5-1? So 1NT is not balanced for you?, this is somehow new concept to me.

I think that some 5431 hands are best treated as balanced.

 

We've had lots of discussions on this board about opening 1NT with a stiff. The same logic applies to NT rebids... Some people prefer to distort shape in order to accurately describe strength. Others prefer to distort strength in order to accurately describe shape...

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5-1 so 1NT is not balanced for you?,  this is somehow new concept to me.
We've had lots of discussions on this board about opening 1NT with a stiff

We've also had lots of conversations about rebidding 1NT with a stiff (which I think you, hrothgar, allude to, but didn't explicitly say).

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but have used the rationale that if forcing NT auctions are made to get you to the 5-2 major fit then surely it also works the other way around

It is not the objective of a forcing notrump to get to a 5-2 fit

 

The 5-2 fit in 2M that one plays is actually a concession from the natural order of things. The gain of the F1 NT comes in auctions when responder bids something other than 2 of opener's major.

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but have used the rationale that if forcing NT auctions are made to get you to the 5-2 major fit then surely it also works the other way around

It is not the objective of a forcing notrump to get to a 5-2 fit

 

The 5-2 fit in 2M that one plays is actually a concession from the natural order of things. The gain of the F1 NT comes in auctions when responder bids something other than 2 of opener's major.

Another gain is that it makes 2/1 GF a bit easier to play.

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If 1NT rebid promise a balanced hand and 2-3 (forget 3if u want) isnt it better playing 2 with 5-2 fit than 1NT ??

With stronger hands it could be different but i would allways choise 5-2 fit instead of 1NT.

 

I understand why people pass if 1NT not promise a balanced hand, but thats not my style.

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There is a bid difference between opening 1NT with singleton, and rebidding 1NT on partner's singleton, when you rebid 1NT you are voluntarily lieying to your partner who won't clarify your hand ever.

 

There is also a big difference between playing 2M in a 5-2 fit, than on a 2-5 fit, the weak hand doesn't have entries to stablish its suit, the strong one does.

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i would pass 1nt and then i can consider something if the opps balance at 2

I AM old-fashioned but my memory is good for the times that I ate -200 in 1NT when we had only a 5-2 fit but it was just going for 1 down.......be that as it may, I am curious about how balancing actions would lead you to change your mind? Now that they appear to have H equally split and S are likely 4-2 or worse (why you passed 1NT in the 1st place) you will now go to the inferior contract?

 

Justin gave his reasons for the pass, which I will use in the future when applicable.

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