han Posted September 15, 2005 Report Share Posted September 15, 2005 KJxxxxxJxxQxx The bidding goes 1D-1S-1NT, all by you. Do you pass or correct to 2S? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted September 15, 2005 Report Share Posted September 15, 2005 wouldn't consider bidding 2S. 5332, mediocre suit, scattered values etc etc. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted September 15, 2005 Report Share Posted September 15, 2005 Happy to passIf I were to correct, I'd rebid 2♦ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kfgauss Posted September 15, 2005 Report Share Posted September 15, 2005 You need to add how often you raise on 3 cards and how often you bid 1NT on a singleton (i.e. your take on the 1-3-4-5 hand shape discussion). If you don't raise on 3 often and you don't ever have a stiff, I'll bid 2S. If you do raise on 3 often, but can't have a stiff, it's a bit murky but I think I'll pass. If you can have a stiff, it's an easy pass. Andy Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted September 15, 2005 Report Share Posted September 15, 2005 I pass without a second thought. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Al_U_Card Posted September 15, 2005 Report Share Posted September 15, 2005 wouldn't consider bidding 2S. 5332, mediocre suit, scattered values etc etc. Thanks for the reasons. I habitually will bid 2S with these hands, but have used the rationale that if forcing NT auctions are made to get you to the 5-2 major fit then surely it also works the other way around (except for the lead benefit....). Figured that the more motley your crue was, the better off you were in the trump contract. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted September 15, 2005 Report Share Posted September 15, 2005 Pass in a heartbeat. I don't fret over missing a 5-3 fit, since its rare, and its negligible a 5-2 will play better than 1N. And of course, you may be heading for a 5-1. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted September 15, 2005 Report Share Posted September 15, 2005 I bid 2♠ and I don't see any other option Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted September 15, 2005 Report Share Posted September 15, 2005 Wow, it seem americans don't rebid their suits into the best contract, nice B) Now for beginners, just think the difference into our 1.5 trticks to 1NT against the 3.5 tricks in 2♠+ control values against long running suits. It works this way: if partner has 3♠ you belong to 2♠, if he has 2, you won't stablish the ♠ suit in your dreams on a NT contract, and again belong to 2♠. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted September 15, 2005 Report Share Posted September 15, 2005 Pass - absolutely automatic. A 2S bid almost always shows 6, or certainly a concentrated 5 carder. Fluffy, don't forget that your comments are predicated on the fact that you don't raise with 3 card support. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted September 16, 2005 Report Share Posted September 16, 2005 Wow, it seem americans don't rebid their suits into the best contract, nice B) I don't that the issue is being American, but rather not being Polish or French.... Those are the most prominant countries that absolutely insist on 4 card support to raise partner's major suit response. As for the rest of us, the 1NT rebid strongly suggests that we aren't interested in a Spade contract. We've already explictly denied 3 card Spade support and and any kind of ruffing value. You could easily be pulling 1NT into a 5-1 fit... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted September 16, 2005 Report Share Posted September 16, 2005 5-1 so 1NT is not balanced for you?, this is somehow new concept to me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted September 16, 2005 Report Share Posted September 16, 2005 5-1? So 1NT is not balanced for you?, this is somehow new concept to me. I think that some 5431 hands are best treated as balanced. We've had lots of discussions on this board about opening 1NT with a stiff. The same logic applies to NT rebids... Some people prefer to distort shape in order to accurately describe strength. Others prefer to distort strength in order to accurately describe shape... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Wiste1 Posted September 16, 2005 Report Share Posted September 16, 2005 Agree with Fluffy, 2♠Opener could rebid 2♣ if 1-4-4-4/1-3-5-4 and 2♦ if 1-4-5-3 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Elianna Posted September 16, 2005 Report Share Posted September 16, 2005 5-1 so 1NT is not balanced for you?, this is somehow new concept to me. We've had lots of discussions on this board about opening 1NT with a stiffWe've also had lots of conversations about rebidding 1NT with a stiff (which I think you, hrothgar, allude to, but didn't explicitly say). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pigpenz Posted September 16, 2005 Report Share Posted September 16, 2005 i would pass 1nt and then i can consider something if the opps balance at 2♥ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sartaj1 Posted September 16, 2005 Report Share Posted September 16, 2005 but have used the rationale that if forcing NT auctions are made to get you to the 5-2 major fit then surely it also works the other way around It is not the objective of a forcing notrump to get to a 5-2 fit The 5-2 fit in 2M that one plays is actually a concession from the natural order of things. The gain of the F1 NT comes in auctions when responder bids something other than 2 of opener's major. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Elianna Posted September 16, 2005 Report Share Posted September 16, 2005 but have used the rationale that if forcing NT auctions are made to get you to the 5-2 major fit then surely it also works the other way around It is not the objective of a forcing notrump to get to a 5-2 fit The 5-2 fit in 2M that one plays is actually a concession from the natural order of things. The gain of the F1 NT comes in auctions when responder bids something other than 2 of opener's major. Another gain is that it makes 2/1 GF a bit easier to play. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted September 16, 2005 Report Share Posted September 16, 2005 Agree that 2♠ will be in a 5-2 fit at least. But I won't bid it... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jurek S Posted September 16, 2005 Report Share Posted September 16, 2005 Even beeing Polish and living in France I pass (no other option) B) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted September 16, 2005 Report Share Posted September 16, 2005 If this is a casual partnership, 2S. I have bad experience letting this sort of thing rest in 1NT. Especially vulnerable. Unless opps aren't too gifted in defense, I definitely would try 2S. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Wiste1 Posted September 16, 2005 Report Share Posted September 16, 2005 If 1NT rebid promise a balanced hand and 2-3♠ (forget 3♠if u want) isnt it better playing 2♠ with 5-2 fit than 1NT ??With stronger hands it could be different but i would allways choise 5-2 fit instead of 1NT. I understand why people pass if 1NT not promise a balanced hand, but thats not my style. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted September 16, 2005 Report Share Posted September 16, 2005 There is a bid difference between opening 1NT with singleton, and rebidding 1NT on partner's singleton, when you rebid 1NT you are voluntarily lieying to your partner who won't clarify your hand ever. There is also a big difference between playing 2M in a 5-2 fit, than on a 2-5 fit, the weak hand doesn't have entries to stablish its suit, the strong one does. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Al_U_Card Posted September 16, 2005 Report Share Posted September 16, 2005 i would pass 1nt and then i can consider something if the opps balance at 2♥ I AM old-fashioned but my memory is good for the times that I ate -200 in 1NT when we had only a 5-2 fit but it was just going for 1 down.......be that as it may, I am curious about how balancing actions would lead you to change your mind? Now that they appear to have H equally split and S are likely 4-2 or worse (why you passed 1NT in the 1st place) you will now go to the inferior contract? Justin gave his reasons for the pass, which I will use in the future when applicable. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
SoTired Posted September 16, 2005 Report Share Posted September 16, 2005 pass - 1N is more likely to make than 2S. I will pass again if opps come in with 2H. Yes there are hands where 1N is -2 and 2S is -1, but I think there are more the other way around. 2D is not on the horizon. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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