I was east on this hand. I posted these questions here as on the the Israeli thread there were IMHO some peculiar comments and I wanted a second opinion (and hopefully more... ) Some thought the TD did wrong by even going through the process of consulting with five players. They believe the case is so clear cut that the score (NS +1430) should have been upheld on the spot. Others even went further and claimed that I should not have called the TD and that calling him was ill-judged, petty and quarrelsome. As for the result of the ruling - in similarity to the opinions expressed here - most of the repliers said that had they been on the poll they would allow the 6S call. FWIW I think that the 6S call should be disallowed and changing the score to 5S+1 is the correct thing to do. Here is my reasoning - I believe both N and S should know that 5D shows unconditionally 4 KC hence 5S is a clear sign-off. I agree that generally when asking for KC and getting a 4 KC reply should mean slam is to be bid but this case is an exception. I can think of several hands S (the 5S bidder) can have, in the context of the bidding thus far, where he has no KC and will only bid slam when PD shows all the KC. It might be bad practice to use RKCB in this instance but still... Some of the repliers (on the Israeli forum) said that they would bid the slam on grounds that "what possibly more can N have" I've two issues with this statement. 1. I believe RKCB is simply a question, it doesn't hold any invitational overtones to it, hence N is not entitled to apply judgment unless his answer to RKCB has been ambiguous, which is not the case here. 2. For sake of argument, let's assume that N (the 2NT opener) is allowed to bid slam based on the quality of his hand. I think that in the context of super-accepting N has a minimum and therefore PASS is a LA. The hand can be made better in several aspects - more KC, more controls, having a good side suit. Furthermore, few boards earlier S made a serious underbid which led to NS missing a cold game. Might not the BIT help N just enough to bid the slam on the premise that S did it again? Finally, let me digress on the issue of whether a 2NT super accept hand can hold just one KC. To begin with I ran a simulation of 100000 2NT opening hands, I didn't quantify into the parameters a fit in S or anything else that might imply super-accept. I asked how many KC do these hands hold, I nominated the SK arbitrarily as the 5th KC. The results were: 0 KC 0% 1 KC 0.46% 2 KC 14.47% 3 KC 51.33% 4 KC 31.34% 5 KC 2.4% As can be seen 4 KC is about 68 times more likely than 1 KC, I think that if we factor in super accepting then the ratio would be way bigger. Now, I would like to claim that by definition super accepting should no be done with 1 KC. Even with the example hands presented on this thread e.g. QJxxx, AJ, KQJ, KQJ or QJxx, Jx, KQJ, AKQJ one should notsuper accept. why is that? Say I bid just 3S - if PD passes for sure he doesn't hold an Ace so game is off the top - GOOD. if PD bids 3NT I can cue-bid to show a good hand for S. if PD invites sometime further in the bidding I'm going to cooperate adamantly. To summarize, I can see no wrong coming out of bidding just 3S with these hands.