fingolfin3

In this auction (playing 2/1, unopposed): 1♠-2♥ 3♦-3♥ 3♠-? What is a good use for 4♣ here? The background -- I had the opening hand. My partner had a strong 6-card heart suit, but also diamond support. She ended up bidding 4NT looking for slam in diamonds. She "signed off" in 5♦ after I bid 5♣ (1 KC in spades). Of course, I had no clue that she had diamond support, so I took it as a queen-ask in a spade contract. Disaster predictably ensued. Partner remarked that she wanted to be able to use 4♣ as a keycard-ask for diamonds here, since it has no other logical meaning. Does this make sense? I'm not sure what a better use of 4♣ might be (cuebid implying spade support, general force, ?).

Play ♣AKQ. It only loses to Jxxx with East. If West started with Jxxx, the J will drop, since West ruffed once. This seems too easy, so I assume I'm missing something here.

5♥/4♠ starts with Stayman and then bids 2♥. That's what I always assumed was intermediate standard.

Isn't transferring to hearts and then bidding 2♠ the standard way of showing 5-5 invitational? Partner should not bid 2NT, unless you have some sort of agreement on what it means (like "pick your better major"). So I think you bid this right.

I'm curious as to what North would possibly have to say during the "heated discussion" that followed this hand...

I've had a bad habit of bidding 3♦ with hands like North's. I need to get out of it. That said, with a side singleton I think it's the right bid. I am strongly of the opinion that one shouldn't worry about getting a bad result because a 1♦ opener was only 3 cards. The chances of 1♦ being exactly 4-4-3-2 are about the same as running into a 5-0 trump split. As you would with the latter, just chalk it up to bad luck and move on.

Oh sorry, wasn't aware that bidding a doubleton club was an option in 1NT forcing systems. No, we would bid 2♦, the longer minor, with exactly 5-3-3-2. Looks like opinions are split between 2♥ and passing 2♣. I probably would have bid 2♥ if the suit was better (Axxxx or something). But now that I think of it, 2♥ might be the best option anyway. Opener can easily have 3 hearts (5-3-2-3, 5-3-1-4), and even a 5-2 fit in a major is probably better at matchpoints. It's only a problem if opener has only one heart, like 5-1-3-4 or 5-1-2-5 (oops). At the table, I passed 2♣. Partner was 5-2-3-3 and managed to make it for +90 and a middling score.

We play that you rebid 2♣ with 5-3-3-2 (and 3 clubs). Which, obviously, increases the likelihood that it's a 3-card suit.

[hv=s=sxhjxxxxdaxxxcqxx]133|100|Scoring: MP Bidding goes: 1♠-(P)-1NT!-(P) 2♣-(P)-?[/hv] Now what? This is the kind of hand that makes me want to switch to 1NT semi-forcing...

Apologies for the double post, please ignore.

Is it standard to play inverted minors as on by a passed hand? I'm referring to an auction like: P - (P) - 1♦ - (P) 2♦! Also, if inverted is on by a passed hand, is it acceptable for opener to pass with a minimum hand (as game is unlikely)? Or should opener bid 3♦ anyway, since good opponents will usually balance over 2♦?

East has to get some of the blame for not raising to 4♠. Because then South would have undoubtedly bid 5♣, giving E-W an additional 300!

If I'm North, there's no way I'm not bidding 4/5♣ with a 10+ card fit and a singleton in their suit.

I'm pretty bad at figuring these out, so any help is appreciated. How would you play this suit for one loser? [hv=n=sq9x&w=s&e=s&s=saj6xx]399|300|[/hv]

I think you're still ok in that case -- just take the ♦A. With two trumps left in dummy, you can ruff a ♦, ruff a ♣ back to hand, and ruff another ♦. ♣ ruff back to hand and draw trumps. The interesting thing about this hand (to me) is that starting with ♣ to the K isn't necessarily the best way to gain another trick, but it gives you transportation back to your hand, which provides you with more options.