gurgistan

Thanks for two very good answers. What hand does East need to just pass the 3N? Does he need to have first/second round control in the majors and his lengthier minor?

This is from today's The Times of London. Teams [hv=pc=n&e=sk2hkj62dj973c942&d=w&v=n&b=12&a=3np4c]133|200[/hv] (I have not given the whole of the bidding as it is not relevant to my question.) Clearly, East does not think Partner's Gambling 3N is doable. So he bails, fair enough. Could someone tell me what East would have needed to pass 3N as it looks doable enough to me? I have only recently started playing Gambling 3N but it comes up so rarely anyways.

I love this game. There is so much to learn. I am indebted to all who replied.

Thanks guys! I think I get it. 3♠ is the bid as with his strong jump shift, I would bid 4♠ with 3-card support so 3♠ shows only 2-card support and Partner should not go to 4♠, he would bid 3N and we are right-sided. Also, the conclusion seems to be that 4♥ cannot be found without some prior agreed method for this spot.

[hv=pc=n&w=sk7h532dat962c962&e=saq983hakjt4d8ckq&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=p1sp1np3hp3nppp]266|200[/hv] Partner is a random unknown. I read his profile. We are playing 2/1. Do we ever find the 8-card heart fit here? I can't see beyond bidding 3N.

I am having difficulty showing a game force as responder over a 1m opener. Over 1C, I bid 1M, I guess unless 2C or 3N is appropriate. Over 1D, I still have the 1M, 3N and inverted minors options but I can also go 2C (I play it as 2/1 gf) but my 2C has to be a real suit ie four cards long yes?

There is a rule of 2, 3 and 4 established by Ely Culbertson for making opening pre-empts. However, it seems to give different opening bids to normal methods: caveat, as I understand it. For example, holding SAKQJxx Hxxx Dxx Cxx you have a 7 loser hand. With favourable vulnerabilty Culbertson's rule seems to suggest it can be opened 4S! Whereas, normal methods have us opening 2S as you would expect. What am I failing to understand? Or is it just a case of a different standard produces a different result?

Thank you very much for this. You explained it perfectly.

I have noticed that in SAYC 2N/1m is made with 13-15hcp and 3N/1m is made with 16-17hcp. In 2/1 it is 2N/1m is made with 10-12hcp and 3N/1m is made with 13-15hcp. Why the different standards in the two separate systems?

This.

There are all sorts of pre-emptive bids out there. Weak twos, Gambling 3N, Bergen raises to 1M, etc. Are we taking vulnerability into account for all of them?

Zelandakh, you have done me a great service. Thank you.

I play TABS without any real regard to its efficacy because it makes precision what it is.

Two reasons: 1. I am not particularly comfortable responding to 2♣ openers. 2. Less than 10 hands in with an unknown partner, decided to KISS (keep it simple, stupid). I am very interested in the 3rd Rnd Ht Ctrl ask. I have never come across 3rd Rnd Ctrl asks before. You bypass 5N because knowing that you possess all four kings is less important than knowing you have five winners in hearts, yes? Is this a common agreement between established partnerships? It seems very clever. With the right sort of hand a grand slam could be reached even missing a side suit king!

I learnt a lot from the responses so far. Thank you for throwing light on my darkness. Yes, it is IMPs. Mr Ace states that as I did not set the trump suit then my 4NT is not 1430 but merely Blackwood. Is this treatment standard? Would anyone please suggest a full bidding sequence? The combined hands are: [hv=pc=n&s=saqt98hakj94d4cak&n=sk62hqt5dakj92ct8]133|200[/hv]