kvar

Yes, the auction went completely off the rails after the director call. East-West don't play inverted minors in competition or non-competition. I don't know why West bid a NF 2♣ or why East bid 2NT (showing a strong notrump, presumably) after a NF 2♣ response. Seems like the the director call completely rattled them into making ridiculous bids and then they landed on their feet. But did either of them illegally use UI?

[hv=pc=n&w=saj6ha5dt532ckq94&e=s432hkq74dkj98ca3&d=e&v=0&b=14&a=1c1s(*)2cp2np3nppp]266|200[/hv] When South bids 1♠, East says "That's insufficient." There's then a pause while everyone tries to figure out if East is joking, during which East looks down at his own bidding card and says "Oops. I, uh, meant to, uh ....". The director is called. He determines that the 1♣ call was not unintended, so a Law 25A correction is not available. The auction continues as shown. East-West are playing Standard American with a 12-14 notrump. 1♣ is natural. They have been playing together for a couple of years and are not very high-caliber players. Has there been any damage?

What about in a Swiss? If you realize the opponents revoked while comparing scores with your teammates, can you still get rectification?

[hv=d=e&v=n&s=sa653hj764da52c42]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] P-P-1♦-X P-2♦-P-2♥ P-? Do you agree with the 2♦ bid? Now what? If you don't pass with this hand, is there a hand you would pass with after cuebidding the previous round?

[hv=n=saj2h3dkca4&w=s974h94dck9&e=st653hd8ct7&s=skq8ha8d5c6]399|300|[/hv] South is in 3NT. West has just won the third trick for the defense with the ♥K, when South faces his hand and claims saying "The rest are mine." West objects and wants down one. Ruling?

Another one from the Delaware Regional last week. During the Sunday Swiss Teams, you're called to a table, where you see that North's hand is on the table as dummy and West has just made the opening lead of the ♣J. Unfortunately, dummy also has a ♣J. East, South, and West all have hands from board 24, while North took her hand from board 25. Both of these boards have been played at the other table, but neither have been played here. Board 25 is sitting on the table on the top of a stack of boards with three hands still in it. The players had a competitive auction starting with a Pass from North, as North is the dealer on board 25. North passed throughout, however. What do you do about this? Do you apply any penalties if: A. No one at the table knows how this happened; or B. East says only North touched the boards, and North doesn't dispute this.

[hv=n=shd7c3&w=shd8c6&e=s6hdc2&s=sqhdca]399|300|[/hv] This happened at an ACBL Regional tournament last week. South is playing in a notrump contract. At trick twelve, the lead is in dummy. Declarer calls for a club, and wins in her hand with the Ace. She then says "diamond". West, without any pause, immediately says "accept the lead" and insists on winning the trick. North-South are not happy about this outcome. It's not clear if Declarer knew which cards were winners and which were losers. Your ruling? Does it make any difference if declarer's spade was the Ace?

Even if removing your bidding cards means Pass, it seems clear that North (and East) did not intend to Pass. Once you tell North your ruling, if he says that he didn't mean to Pass without pause for thought, this falls squarely under 25A1 and 25A3, and he gets to change his call since partner hasn't called and the auction period is not over yet. However, if North could have heard South say he wanted to bid again, North has UI which might restrict his choices. It seems unlikely on this auction that Pass is a LA, though.