shyams

Why is a repeating finesse not implicit in the claim?

Let's see how many actual solutions are posted; by people other than you. I really wish no one bothers.

Sounds more like a command than a general request... I think I solved this problem; but now I refuse to post the solution. In any case, it teaches nothing...

Not today, don't feel like it. Sorry Busy watching the NFC Championship game...

If you listen to the Fox Sports guy, he almost certainly pronounces the R before the V

Watching Vikings @ Saints right now. Got me wondering... What is the correct pronunciation of Brett Favre's surname? I've heard the US network commentators call him (sounds like) "FAARV" whereas the English commentator prefers to call him (sounds) "FAAVR"

May I ask a question in all earnestness: Are there any penalties for not claiming? After reading some of the suggested rulings (not just this one), I the sensible players are the ones who play out all 13 cards one by one (and often at slow pace) so that they do not have to claim. Even in my last club game (a couple of days ago), I saw opps / partner refuse to claim (possibly because they had one loser -- which they eventually lost at trick 13; or because they are too scared that opps will call TDs on every claim I have also seen absurd situations where partner planned to play out all cards in dummy even when I (dummy) knew dummy was high (absolutely no way to lose a trick). After 2 tricks, I could not take it... and was told off by RHO when I claimed as dummy (surely this is an invitation for more)

I'd win trick 2 with the HK and cash the SA. If spades are 3-2 with one player holding SKQ, everyone will make 11 tricks. But if someone has Kx, they will find it really hard to unblock at trick 3. Many good players will find the unblock in later play. In addition, such a play benefits if one player has SQx and his partner makes a mistake.

Whew! I have just completed all 30. My tabulation (non 2/1 style bidding) A - B: (Pass vs. Dbl) wins +26 IMPs A - C: (Pass vs. 2H ) wins +38 IMPs B - C: ( Dbl vs. 2H ) wins +18 IMPs Notes - based on my results: - 15 boards were flat or nearly flat (i.e. all 3 comparisons yielded 0, 1 or 2 IMPs either way) - Pass vs Dbl had 3 bid swings (big defined as >10 IMPs). Two went in favour of pass, 1 went for the double - Pass vs 2H had 6 big swings! - Dbl vs 2H had 4 big swings (and 1 more of 9 IMPs) - I was unsure of leaving the double of 2♥ in #1. That's why I posted the "Borrowed hand" thread -- http://forums.bridgebase.com/index.php?showtopic=36781 My thoughts were that the spade suit is good enough to play opposite even a singleton; but perhaps I was biased. - I found it interesting that whenever East declares in spades, a ♠A opening lead by South is often good, sometimes mandatory and rarely bad. I need to use this in real play, whenever appropriate

For a, my bidding would be 1S 2C; 2D 3C all pass Otherwise, agree with awm a-b = 0 IMPs a-c = 4 IMPs b-c = 4 IMPs

a: agree with awm and Codo; 4Sx -1; N/S get +100 b: agree with awm. same result as above c: 1S (2H) pass (4H)!; all pass; +620 to N/S a-b = 0 IMPs (---) a-c = (11) IMPs (-520) to N/S b-c = (11) IMPs (-520) to N/S

a: agree with awm on biddding. I go with his analysis and result of N/S +100 b: agree with awm; +50 to N/S c: agree with awm; -800 to N/S a-b = 2 IMPs (+50) to N/S a-c = 14 IMPs (+900) to N/S b-c = 13 IMPs (+850) to N/S

Agree with awm. 4S will be bid on all hands, and no doubles IMO 5H will not often be bid. And it could get passed by E/W A push for zero IMPs

a: I play NF 1NT Bidding goes 1S (p) 1NT all pass Opening lead is a diamond. Dummy wins and leads S to Jack. Now, I have a problem. I hope I would switch to a club (Jack from dummy) but I may be saying this because I see all 4 hands. In any case, let me assume 5 tricks for E/W. +100 for N/S b: agree with awm; -100 to N/S c: 1S (2H) pass (pass); Dbl (pass) 2S all pass; makes on SA opening lead; -110 to N/S a-b = 5 IMPs (+200) to N/S a-c = 5 IMPs (+210) to N/S b-c = 0 IMPs (---)

a: (1S) pass (1NT) pass; (2C) pass (2S) pass;?? With a 4-3-3-3 10 loser minimum hand, I'd bid 1NT with West hand. I'd expect East to make a further move after 2S (more probable than passing) and E/W reach 4S. Otherwise I agree with awm a-b = 5 IMPs (50% of award for 470) a-c = 5 IMPs (50% of award for 470) b-c = 0 IMPs

agree with awm. Flat board

agree with awm and helene_t

Agree. Pass wins

The Who? Mostly dead. Wonder why they were chosen

agree with awm on a and b For c., I'd guess that if the sequence begins as awm said i.e. (1S) 2H (2S) 3C; (P) 3D (P) now North could try 3S and reach 3NT again. a-b = (12) IMPs (-700) to N/S a-c = (12) IMPs (-700) to N/S b-c = 0 IMPs (---)

Me too. 3NT flat

a: 3NT by S; +630 to N/S b: 5C by N; +600 to N/S c: 3NT by S; +630 to N/S a-b = 1 IMPs (+30) to N/S a-c = 0 IMPs (---) b-c = (1) IMPs (-30) to N/S

a: Agree with awm. 2S by E; -140 to N/S b: N/S reach 4H (from North side). Down 2 after a CA opening lead; -200 to N/S c: 1S (2H) pass (2S); pass (3H) all pass; makes on a spade lead +140 to N/S a-b = 2 IMPs (+60) to N/S a-c = (7) IMPs (-280) to N/S b-c = (8) IMPs (-340) to N/S

Same results awm and gwnn

a: Agree with awm. 2S by E making for -110 to N/S b: Agree with awm. 3S by E; +50 to N/S c: 1S (2H) 2S (3H); pass (pass) 3S all pass; +50 to N/S a-b = (4) IMPs (-160) to N/S a-c = (4) IMPs (-160) to N/S b-c = 0 IMPs (---)