Beto

Totally agree. If you are playing bridge for money against only one human, you should have as many chances as you can to prove who deserves to get the money. There is no sense wasting time while the GIBs are playing the hand.

I agree with 3♥. Now i Bid 4♠. 4♠ directly over 3♣ will take a lot of bidding space if partners intention is slam. A) AKQxxx Axx x AQx :( AKQxxx x Axx AQx Wouldnt you want to hear 3♥ on hand A?

4♦ shows a good distributional hand (3NT is not possible anymore). I also think it shows a 5♠-5♦ hand (maybe 6♠4♦) picture style hands should be like this: AKJ10xx x AJxx x // AKQxx x AJxxx xx or stronger. I would bid 4♥ over 4♦

Maybe can use 4c and 4d as singleton with 5-5 both majors, slam try 4h and 4S would be 6-4 but no slam... with 6-4 and slam try u bid smolen and then reopen 3NT in 4c/4d to show singleton

What is the hand that East's should have for this bidding? i would say: [hv=s=sxhkxxdxxxxxcq98x]133|100|[/hv]

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In this case it is usually better to play in 1NT However you must almost always play in 2M because you will win a lot more in 2/1 auctions than you will loose by playing 2M instead of 1NT.

I play 2/1 GF except if responder rebids his suit after a possible min. response. This way i can bid 9-11 1 suiter. So maybe the bidding would be 1S 2D 2S 3D (NF) 3S 5D or 1S 2D 3C 3D (FG, 3C shows 14+) 3S 5D I also agree with Justin that over 1S 1NT you are too strong for 2S. Better to bid 2C. 3S is an alternative too, but i dont like it.

Law 31 is clear about this: When the offender has bid at his partner’s turn to call, or at his LHO’s turn to call if the offender has not previously called, offender’s partner must pass whenever it is his turn to call (see Law 23 when the pass damages the non-offending side), and the lead penalties of Law 26 may apply. In this case the pass damaged the non offending side, as with 2 aces and 11 pts, the player could choose another bid instead of pass over 3NT.

Cuebidding theory depends on partnership agreements. for ex: I prefer to show distribution at the 3-level (so i never use 2NT with bad trumps) and cuebids starting on 3NT this way, in the bidding: 1S - 2C - 2D - 2S 2NT would show values in hearts with xx clubs. 3C shows H in clubs (Hxx/Hx in most cases) 3D shows 5-5 distribution with values in S and D, may have Hx in clubs 3H shows singleton club with HHx probably 4H directly would show a singleton H with xxx in clubs probably so 1S 2C 2D 2S 3C 3D 4H i guess it shows 5143 with values in all suits, maybe something like KQJxx x AQJx Kxx

Why not bid 4♦ with 6H4D? Would you pass forcing and then pull to 4NT if you wanted to ask aces? Is this pass really forcing?

I also learned that way and i guess it is pretty natural.

I would take it as to play, but dont know if i would choose this bid without a regular partner...

Yes, i took this as a big mistake because the result was bad...

Ben, this was exactly what i thought at the table !

I was Barbosa at the table and it took me some time to decide what to bid. So this 2NT hands i post is exactly what me and my partner have as an agreement... (partneship style, we can bid 2♣ on ♠Axx ♥x ♦xxx ♣A109xxx) At the table i bid 3♦ over 2NT and this was one of my big mistakes in this match. It costs us 13 IMPs... but we still won by 19... :)

I guess this is possbile:1 ♠ Jxx ♥ KJxx ♦ Kxx ♣ Kxx However, partner may not have clubs, but then he should be stronger like: ♠ KJx ♥ AQ10x ♦ Kxxx ♣ xx

I am a 2♣ bidder, jsut because it is over 1♦. If the game is going well i would choose pass. If i desperate need IMPs, i would try to crete a swing via 3♣.

I hate to double part-score for penalties... but in this case... Pass in 1♥ and then double after the raise means that partner would like to double 1♥!!! If you play this double as takeout, you will get opps only when opener has 16+ pts and doubles for takeout... And with 16+ and a trap pass you probably make 3N anyway... In this case, if partner want me to takeout he would bid 2NT which is clearly some kind of scrambling. I guess even 2♠ in this bidding should be something ART, because after passing 1♥ partner does not have spades.

ty justin :)

I totally agree with justin... One hand from the sydney WYTC : [hv=d=e&v=e&s=s9764hkqj32dj3c86]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] You, in east, pass, LHO passes, partner opens 3♠ and RHO bids 4♥. Do you double 4♥? In a good day opps will correct to 5 of a minor and will go down 1. On a bad day, they will correct to 6 of a minor and will make. Pass is the best choice here, as maybe opps wont find a possible 5-5 minor fit. However, in this deal partner had: AQ10xxx in spades and KQxx in clubs and was void in hearts. So any contract will go down a lot and because you opened 3♠ you cant double them.

great part of brazilian top players use this approach here is the first rebids and some considerations that the responder should hv in mind 1♥ 1♠ = like 1NT forcing, 0-4♠ 1NT = shows 4♠ non - reverse hand 2♣/♦ = may be 3- card only on balanced hands (12-17) 2♥ = 6♥ 2♠ = reverse, 4♠ 2NT = GF, balanced 3♣/♦ = natural GF responder must hv in mind that 2♣/♦ may be bid with 3-card only, therefore he must prefer the 2♥ bid on hands like ♠ Kxx ♥ Kx ♦ xxxx ♣ QJ10x after 1♥ - 1♠ - 2♣ if anyone wants the full sequence used by brazilians just email me rbello@ufrj.br Beto