BunnyGo

You are absolutely correct, I was confused about the sequence.

Welcome to BBO. I think you're ready to play as soon as you feel comfortable. Definitely let people know you're new, they're usually quite understanding. This is a great game, and though sometimes people get frustrated...it's still just a game. I'd also like to point out to one of my favorite parts of BBO: the vugraphs. You get to watch great players and have commentary from other great players (and you can ask them questions too!) It's been a great resource for me to look at them play a hand and think, "wow, that's a great way to play a hand...maybe I'll remember it when I play next time." I never do, but hopefully it'll sink in eventually.

I think the "obvious" response is that it depends on your agreements. I believe that in "standard" it's simply a good hand with spades stopped and no direction (and for whatever reason didn't want to sit for a penalty pass). I think this is a bad system (since you'll usually want a penalty pass, and no one gets rich bidding 2NT here) even though it's what I play generally but this is PERFECT for using good-bad 2NT http://www.bridgeguys.com/Conventions/GoodBad2NTCohen.html . If you're familiar with Lebensohl, this is a similar situation. It shows a competitive hand that simply wants to place a 3 level contract if opener doesn't have extras. Edit: disregard the above. I was answering a question not asked.

Thanks for the thoughtful responses. Below I've included the full hand.

[hv=pc=n&w=sak3hq962dat62c94&n=st865hatdj93cakj3&d=s&v=b&b=7&a=1d(11-15%2C%204+)p1sp1n(11-13)p3nppp]266|200[/hv] IMPS. You lead: 1) 2♥, T, 5 (UDCA), 7 2) 3♦, 4 (reverse smith), Q, A 3) What now? Edit: In response to the questions, the 5 of hearts should be upside-down count if partner remembered.

How long ago did you play this hand? I can't find it in your hand records.

You hold K52, AQT6, Q94, T53 Imps, w/r (1[DI})-?? Also same hand but MPs w/r P-(1♦)-?? Thank you.

-1.

I agree in general with wyman, but knowing the club I know there won't be a PP offered for any infraction.

Spade Q. I considered a heart, and a club as well. But I don't think partner could have so many hearts (especially top ones) that he's doubling for a heart lead, and if a club is called for, it (almost surely) can't hurt to lead a spade first.

Because we also have different rules for football here in the US.

I am not a lawyer, nor am I in any way knowledgeable about the details of the laws of bridge, but if the bid isn't alertable (which I do not think it is...if it is I need to start alerting it) then what infraction was done? West could have asked what the bid meant. Just because North volunteered the information to East does not mean that West was harmed.

not sure it matters, but what are the colors?

Very keen eye. Since you brought it up, how did declarer escape for only down 1? It didn't say claimed; is this another case where a hand got timed out and the wrong score awarded?

I don't understand the point of this topic. To answer your question: East, who goes by the handle "mpkpo". Are you suggesting that he is awesome for somehow getting out for down 1?

Sorry, just to clarify, are you planning on doing this online, or face to face?

agreed....as long as you say "beer" at the end of the claim, what's the problem?

Better yet, why not "screen" everyone individually? You only see everyone's bids and card plays when it's your turn to make a decision.

Out of curiosity, do you know if a card was played from dummy while you were disconnected? Did they complete the first trick, or did they wait to play a card until you got back?

Personally I was thinking (especially after the above discussion) more like 30-40% to me for not bidding 3]SP] and 80-90% for you for not bidding 3♣. But who knows. Thanks to all for your thoughts, they were instructive.

It sounds to me like not only does your partner have an 11-12 or so point hand, but he has no real suit to suggest (and has a heart stopper). With no reason to try for game, and no suit to try and pull to I'd just pass 1NT.

I'm sorry, I'm probably just too distracted or hyped-up on caffeine to understand the difference, but what is the difference between: A} Calculating the percentage based on the 23 boards (say) played, and B} Calculating the percentage based on the 23 boards played, adding the same percentage for the 24th board and calculating the percentage over 24 boards (as I think you're suggesting). I'm a few years out of grammar school, but I still remember that these produce the same result. What am I not understanding?

As another option, my partner and I play a variant where all bids EXCEPT 3♣ are game forcing and 3♣ is puppet to 3♦ pass or correct to play. Yes, we have lost the 3♣ bid...but many systems sacrifice the lowly suit for gain elsewhere.

I'll still pass.

I am not an expert on laws (nor bridge), but if my agreements are that 2NT is 17-18 and 3H is non-forcing, then I've already overbid my hand and I pass...Yes, it's a prime 15 (3 aces and a good 5 card suit) but I have no ruffing values and I'm a King short of my bidding so far--why would I bid on?