rfedrick

It's not 'just hearts', it's 'hearts is the only weak option'. If i'm going to lose some functionality i want my other 2L openings to do some more work to compensate. The hearts only version would either be {♥ or 17+ 4441} (2♦-2♥-2♠ = 4'441' 17-19 NF, 2♦-2♥-2NT = exactly 1444 17-19 NF, 3L = 4441 types 20+), or {♥ or 20+ 4441 or str bal}. So i lose a w/2 in ♦ but get some better definition on a rare but awkward strong type. I can live with that. My issue is living without a natural 2♠ preempt; i hate the idea sufficiently that i've never played a multi except when a partner has specifically wanted to. Does having a 5/4+ Muiderberg 2♠ offer sufficient compensation for losing the w/2?

Please take it as a given that I need to employ 2♥ for something special (opening values, constructive), as a result of a particular choice of system architecture. I currently play three weak-2's, so this is going to have to change. The two alternatives that I am pondering are i) 2♦ as a hearts-only multi (plus strong 4441s, rare but useful when it comes up), with 2♠ as a normal weak-2; or ii) 2♦ as a regular 2-major multi (either just weak options, or maybe including a strong option as well), and then 2♠ as Muiderberg (♠ + m) [i quite fancy a regular multi with 2♠ = any junk preempt, but it's not legal often enough to make sense]. Anybody have a view? Anybody have experience? I have played a multi relatively rarely and Muiderberg very rarely so don't have much of a results bank to fall back on. Any other suggestions welcome of course.

X, X, 4♦, X

I make that 20% correct, if such a thing is possible (I think perhaps correctness is digital, like being pregnant). (Comment hidden).

On the assumption that LHO has the ♦J and both missing KQ combinations, then four rounds of spades is too much for him. his last 7 cards are pretty much forced to be void KQ J9 KQx and i just play ace and another heart. if he comes down to other variations there is a successful counter in each case. there's no guarantees, but at the table i think you'd nose it out correctly most of the time.

I can only see the two obvious technical lines, so i'm probably missing something too. But they are both sufficiently unlikely that i might be tempted for a defensive-error approach. Win the first club with the ace, cross to ♦Q, play a heart to the 8. If LHO isn't looking at the spade Ace, you may get another club. After all, from LHO's point of view a spade could be a disaster from 10xx(x) if partner has Kxx(x) and declarer AQx(x). Yes, i'm sure he shouldn't get it wrong, but he might. Alternatively - take two top hearts ending on table, and advance the ♠J. If RHO has no reason to know his side have a trump trick he may duck smoothly from Axx(x). With one spade in the bag, you just need a mildly favourable diamond layout (3-3 is now good enough). There are probably lots of others, that shouldn't work but might against middling-ability opponents. The biggest downside is that it's embarrassing when the psychological approach fails but the technical line would have worked. Team-mates can be a humourless bunch.

[hv=d=w&v=n&n=sqxxxhxxdaxckq9xx&w=sxhk10xxxxxdkj9cxx&e=sxxxxhaqjdxxxcajx&s=sakj10hxdq10xxxc10xx]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv] People seem to be split fairly equally between doubling and letting it go. One hand proves nothing, but here it waas right to act. Double gets you to 4♠, a contract with decent play that happens to go one off on the actual layout; but that's OK since 4♥ is making. My partner passed; at the other table South chose to double to win 8 imps.

Partner didn't double, he passed. I concede that this would not be a very difficult decision after (3♥)-Dbl-(4♥)-?.

All NV, IMPs (32 board KO). AKJ10 x Q10xxx 10xx (3♥)-P-(4♥)-? to you. Do you double or go quietly?

4♦. sure to be right opposite 5-5 or 5-4 minors. could easily be trading +50 for -50 opposite balancedish 4-5, but that's life. opposite "< game-try", i'm not remotely close to game with xx in hearts.

it's not easy to construct a layout where the bidding makes any sense, but here's a shot. south: xxx KQ109xx - A10xx north: KJxxx - AKJ10x KJx 3NT was clumsy, but looked the most likely spot and protected the black tenaces 4C was natural, figuring that 3NT was unlikely to be the optimal spot 4NT was another attempt to sign-off 5C was 1 key for clubs, thinking that 4NT was RKC1430 6D was a belated attempt to show his hand, and offer a place to play 6S was preference 6NT appreciated that spades could not possibly be right opposite no raise

6♥. Partner can scarcely have less than QJxxxxx Axxxx - x. i'm not too worried about the opponents successfully opting for their (undoubtedly cheap) 7-level save. From LHO's point of view, he's made you guess at the 5-level, he's almost certainly looking at at least one bullet... I don't think he's going to save.

OK... suppose the your minors were reversed and the overcall had been 3♣, what would you bid then? This cost my team a small fortune in IMPs.

[hv=d=w&v=n&s=sakxxhakxdxxcqjxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP (2♦)-3♦-(P)-? 2♦ = multi (w/2 major, or strong bal) What is your plan, (1) if you can bid 4NT natural and quantitative, and (2) if you can't (it would be key-card)? Any pet methods here (e.g. cheapest minor = "cue")?[/hv]

[hv=d=w&v=n&n=sj109xhkxxdq10xxcxx&w=skxxxxh10xxdaj9xxc&e=sqhqjxxdxxck10xxxx&s=saxxhaxxdkxcaqj9x]399|300|Scoring: IMP (1♠)-P-(1NT)-X; (P)-2♦-all pass -200, everyone else is scoring +630 (give or take 30) on the N/S cards (usually on the auction p-p-3C-3NT-AP). Comments?[/hv]

[hv=d=n&v=b&s=sxhak9xxdjxxcqxxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP 1♣-(2♥)-p-(2♠); 2NT-(p)-? 1♣ = natural clubs or weak (11-13) NT 2♥ = weak 2NT = 6+ clubs, roughly 11-14 (Good-Bad)[/hv] What now? If you bid 3♥ (showing a stop, not asking), partner will bid 3NT. Do you move over that?

[hv=d=e&v=b&n=sqj53ha92d532c982&w=s96h75dj10864ck1063&e=sak1084hqdq9caqj75&s=s72hkj108643dak7c4]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv] I guess defensive problems are never going to be popular - (1) they are difficult, and (2) they carry an element of objective truth. After the nine of spades to the J and K, and the ♣A (West encouraged), East continued with a second club. That was all the help declarer needed - he ruffed, drew trumps in two rounds ending on table, ruffed dummy's last club, cashed AK of diamonds and ran the ♠7 to end-play East. +790. To beat the hand you just have to avoid assisting declarer in his elimination mission. A red suit at trick 3 is good enough - declarer has to use both of his trump entries to ruff out the clubs, and the end-play fails since East can simply cash the ♠A (dummy's Q is established, but declarer can't reach it). -200.

Here's how you would have scored in practice: 1) partner had Ax AKxx AKxxx Ax opposite your xx 10xxxx xx KQ10x so you have to bid slam. I didn't actually have this problem (i wrote down -480, flat board) but the sequence given was how the auction would start in my own methods. i was interested in seeing folks' views on the philosophical issue of whether a club cue at this point was mandatory, or whether (as a team-mate argued) you should just bid 4♥ since you are only marginally better than you've already promised. (In practice partner is so huge he will surely bid again anyway so i would like to think the slam would be routine). 2) Partner held Kxx Qx xxx QJ10xx opposite your Qxxx x AK AK9xxx, so a second double is the winner (5♣ is one off, but 4♥ is cold the other way). I thought this was a routine double at the time, my partner didn't (he passed). The longer i look at it the more sympathetic i am to passing; how likely is partner to have five clubs? On many other layouts double just provokes a (possibly expensive) phantom. 3) Big majority for 3♥ here, which is the right thing to do provided the hand opposite can stifle the urge to raise (actually, even if he raises it's not that bad since 2♠ was about to score +110). My partner passed. 4) KQJ10x AQx x xxxx opposite a w/2 in diamonds; should you back in with 2♠ after 2♦-(P)-P-(2♥); P-(P)-?. A big majority wanted to defend, which i'm sure is right any time that partner has < 3 spades. On this occasion he had three spades and you have to bid: both 3♠ your way and 2♥ their way are cold. I chose to defend, wrongly. 5) xx xx J10xx K10xx and you hear 1♠-(4♥)-P-(P); X-(P)-? Partner has AK108x Q Qx AQJ10x (is that a double? I think yes, though at least one poster has demurred aggressively). The correct action is a little unclear: if you run to 5♣, you are one off (probably doubled); if you sit and hope to beat it, you score +200 if partner defends correctly and -790 if he doesn't. I chose to defend, and scored -790. The defensive problem associated with this hand is (I think) rather elegant and instructive; however i am obviously wrong about that as well since nobody has shown any interest in it (I posted it in a separate thread).

[hv=d=e&v=b&n=sqj53ha92d532c982&e=sak1084hqdq9caqj75]266|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] You deal and open 1♠, the auction continues 1♠-4♥-P-P; X - all pass Not that hard when presented as a problem, but it swung 20 imps (-790 and +200 instead of +200 and +200) the wrong way when East at the table got it wrong. Partner leads ♠9 to the Jack and your King, declarer follows with the two. At trick 2 you cash the club Ace and partner encourages. What do you play to trick 3 to beat the hand?

You are playing an inconsequential Swiss Teams event in a very mixed field (though all of these deals occurred at one of tables 1-4, so you can assume that the participants have some idea what they are doing). All of the problems below generated derisive 'wtp' snorts from either partner or teammate or opposition. I didn't think they were so clear, but maybe it's my own radar that needs recalibrating. 1) xx 10xxxx xx KQ10x 2♣ (only big bid, but not 100% GF) - 2♦ (some values, 2♥ would be immediate dbl neg) - 3♥ (4 hearts + longer diamonds) - ? Pls rate a 4♣ cue [EDIT: A 4♣ bid is a cue for hearts by agreement, not lots of clubs] on a scale of 1 = "obvious, mandatory, wtp" down to 5 = "ridiculous, i've got 2-low / 5-low in partner's suits, i've already shown some values, i should simply bid 4♥ and trust partner to move if slam is good". 2) Qxxx x AK AK9xxx, red v white RHO opens 2♥ (weak), you double, it goes 4♥ to your left, PP back to you. Please rate a second double on same scale as above (1 = "obvious ,mandatory, wtp" down to 5 = "ridiculous, likely to turn +100 into -500" 3) K Qxxxxx AJx K10x, white v red, LHO dealer you hear (1♠)-P-(2♠)-? to you. Where do you score a 3♥ bid on 1 = "mandatory to act with 6cd hearts, short spades and values" down to 5 = "terrible ODR, stiff K is all defence, lousy heart suit, bidding is madness"? [related question: if you hold J10xx A10x Q1098x x and you hear (1♠)-P-(2♠)-3♥; (P)-? to you, do you think you have a 4♥ raise?] 4) KQJ10x AQx x xxxx, both vul, partner deals and opens 2♦ (weak) you hear 2♦-(P)-P-(2♥); P-(P)-? back to you. How do you rate 2♠ on the usual scale (1 = wtp, 5 = idiotic)? 5) xx xx J10xxx K10xx, both vul, partner deals and opens 1♠ you hear 1♠-(4♥)-P-(P); X-(P)-? back to you. Passing here is 1 = "mandatory, wtp etc and so forth" or 5 = "ridiculous, 4NT is obvious"?

Our opponents had an auction that started 2♦-3♣; 3♥-4♥; 4NT-5♦; ?? 2♦ was any GF, 3♥ showed primary hearts, 4NT was key-card for hearts, 5♦ showed 1 of 5. Now the strong hand had a problem - he wanted to play 6♣, but how to stop partner being tempted to correct to 6♥ (or possibly view 6♣ as a grand-slam try with solid hearts and K or Kx in clubs)? This was accomplished easily enough by pulling the STOP card out of the bidding box, placing it firmly on the table with something of a flourish, and then bidding 6♣. Partner duly passed without pause for thought. The TD saw nothing awry - no adjustment, no procedural penalty. Comments?

Maybe i'm missing something, but i don't see that an immediate heart finesse is "obvious". If it loses (not unlikely given the opening bid on your right) the defence may be able to cash 4 clubs and you've just gone off in a cold one. There must be at least some argument for trying to combine your chances in the red suits. (Cashing 3 top diamonds and THEN taking the H finesse is possible, but i believe it to be inferior to testing the hearts first - but i am open to persusasion). Anyway, even if you take an immediate H finesse, LHO shows up with Q10xx so you have to get diamonds right (unless you plan to give up a H and play for 3-3 clubs, which would be a big position), just as in the version of the problem i posed originally. I (naturally) got the diamonds wrong. It's been gnawing at me ever since (a lot turned out to ride on this decision). I'm interested to know what people think is the right theoretical play.

[hv=d=e&v=b&n=sxhajxxxxdkxcxxxx&s=saqxhkxdaq10xxcjxx]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] The bidding (RHO deals): (1♠)-1NT-(2♠)-3♦ (P)-3NT-all pass 3D showed 5+ hearts, inv+. The spade J is led, ducked to your Queen. Please assume for the moment (feel free to mention your preferred line too, of course) that you choose to cash two top hearts, and if nothing good happens to rely on the diamond suit. RHO pitches a spade on the second Heart. The diamond K and another diamond from table draw three small cards from E-W. How do you play the diamond suit and why? (EW are playing wk NT, 4cd M).

3♥ looks completely automatic to me. give partner a weak NT and you want to play 4♥ every day. the hesitation provides no strong inference - he might have been simply pondering a boost to 4♦.

From the same event as the 'missing QJxx' thread started by Frances. [hv=d=n&v=n&s=sa10xxxxhq9xxxdxcx]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] As South, the auction starts Pass-Pass to you. You pass also (?), and W opens 1♦ (strong club, 1+ diamonds). Pass from partner, 3♦ from RHO, showing 8-10 and a 6 card suit. Do you bid? And if so, what?