firmit

If playing Walsh, opener has shown 5♣ + 4♠, and denied a balanced hand. Given the fact that you bid 2♠, you should have at least 4-4 in the majors and just below a GF hand. 2NT is a relay asking for furher information, and should be somewhere in the range of 14-17 hp. If no agreement, support partners clubs with 3 cards or rebid hearts with 5. If no other bids, bid 4♠ with max or sign-off in 3♠. ( that's what I would do... but I am not an expert ) Normally, I would think 2NT is a short game-trial for spades - asking you to bid a short suit.

A beginner question perhaps - but please, give me your thoughts. You hold ♠ Jxx ♥ AQxx ♦ QJ ♣ xxxx Partner opens: 1♥ - (2♠)* alerted weak jump shift ? your bid 1♥ is 9-14(15)hp 4+hearts. Would your bid change if 1♥ was 4+ 11-21hp? What if std. showing 5+hearts 11-21hp?

My first reaction was to dbl followed by 2♣ if 1♠ from partner, asking for more information - expecting him NOT to jump to some game, but bid carefully and slowly :blink: However, I am considering 1♥ knowing perfectly well partner would expect 5+. I got a rebid problem after X-1♠. I got the club length, so if partner bids 1♠ after my 1♥ which is semi-forcing in my book - we might have something. Maybe I'm off...

Do not be sorry, Irina! That's what the whole idea of the forum - to ask questions which you need an answer too! I agree that 3♣ is forcing - I play it as natural, but I know some people use it as a BergenAfterOppsDouble-thing.... Also, the next is forcing, and constructive. No need to promise more than 4+ ♠ - I don't like bidding 1NT with 4 of a major.

1) 2C usually shows 5-5 both major - that might explain W's 2S. 2NT would be perfect - showing the two lowest unbid. 2) Don't understand South's DBL - if not part of a defence against opps two-suiter-bid I don't know about. 3) If he thinks 5-5 major... he thinks they might compete given the two-suited fit, maybe?

Probably some easy questions; if so - maybe I'll get good answers :) Q1 Weak jump shifts are only on after we have opened, or as a first bid-option right? As in: (1) (1♣)-2♥ and 1♣-(1♥)-2♠. Maybe even the sandwich position (as below Q2). Edit: (1) is not wjs - but a weak 2 bid (or free-bid as Robert says below). (2) IS a wjs range 3-5hp or alike. Q2 What about the sandwich position: (1♣)-p-(1♠)-3♦ - still weak jump? Is this really safe? I am currently using this as constructive good suit, game close if partner got some help. Has worked well - but is this standard? Q3 - main question (1♣)-1♦-(p)-? What does a jump-bid in a major promise? Obviously 6+ card, but the range? Is this a weak jump shift? Is that really safe to use in this situation if the love of wjs is too strong?

Richard Pavlicek sure knows his numbers! :) The different tables are not so difficult to make - I have already done this. I make queries based upon the wanted hp range and handpatterns - thus I can get the cumulative sum of percentage of the wanted hands. I am currently making the Query function regards to specific handpatterns with suites, like having a specific hand after opps opening 1NT 15-17. This may also have been done before, but I think it is quite interesting to work it out myself. Maybe I can make a conclusion of what NT defence that has the highest frequency of occuring - who knows! Example the 15-17 range for 4432 ( note the relative % is not in this table ), with ZarPoints. The A.Cp=Average Control points. 4-4-3-2 21.55%, 10 ZD Hp A.Cp -ZP- --%- -Cum 15 4.99 30.0 0.95 0.95 16 5.39 31.4 0.71 1.67 17 5.81 32.8 0.51 2.18 Maybe not so many cares about this stuff, but I find it interesting. :lol:

I am somewhat of a competent programmer. And all my probabilities so far is not based upon a sample of a 1 million hands; I am working with them all; that's a "sample" of 635 013 559 600 hands. I don't know if this is pratical or suitable, but the results should not lie... I hope! Is there a way of posting html? In that way I may show you, if ANY interest at all, what I have been working on. It consists of tables and probabilities for example different 1NT ranges, weak 2 openings and so forth. I may easily query the results I want. The actuall reason for this work is that I have been reading about Zar points, and about inquiry2over1 system, where the Zar points is the base handevaluation system ( I think ). I wanted to legitimate the different bids and find out how frequent the different bids do occur. However, this is somewhat of a huge task... I don't know if can me used to anything rational, other that confuse other people with big, boring tables of probability.... (I am writing it in php)

Playing around with some numbers. Some calculation problems. I have a set of distribution, but how to calculate the probability with hp? Example: The balanced hands 4333 - 10,54% 4432 - 21,55% 5332 - 15,52% Bal. = 47,60% 12 hp with avg. control ( A=2,K=1) 3,75, is 8,03% of all hands. Now, how to calculate a 4432 hand with 12 hp? Is it as simple as 21,55 * 8,03 / 100 = 1,73%? Edited: Appr: of the 1/5 4432 hands, 1/12 of them yields the given result -> 1/60= 1,67 %? If this is incorrect, please give me the correct formula.

This may be trivial to some - but for me a question arised. [hv=v=n&s=saqjhxdxxcakjxxxx]133|100|[/hv] Had myself a new partner at the club today. And I want to give him credit with this hand, helping us as the only pair reaching slam. I suspect the other pairs sitting South with this hand opened 2♣ - but then again, I don't know. The bidding starts with: 1♣ - 1♠ 3♠! Which I found excellent with my [hv=v=n&s=saqjhxdxxcakjxxxx]133|100|[/hv] The road towards 6♠ was now easy. 6NT however is a better contract, even with the clubs 5-0 (as was the case). Both Q♥ and K♥ sat at declarers left, thus the spade finesse failed. A couple of questions, though, needs answering: What is the normal opening on this hand ( the first with long clubs )? Why not open 2♣? Should you not have 4 to jump-support responder? Other similare situations would be...?

I see no reason to open this hand. But given that "I did" - i'd support dbl. But given that "I passed" - i'd bid 2♥.

Undiscussed pick-up partner. 1NT - (2♥) - X What should I take the dbl as? I normally like to play all new suits at 2nd level NF, Leb+new suit lower than opps suit as NF. Cue-bid stayman + all other GF. But - after the given sequence - my partner actually wanted to show 4 card spade, thus a negative dbl. Is this standard when nothing else is agreed in sayc/sa/wbs? Thanks

Being a norwegian - I always cheer for Tor Helness and Geir Helgemo. Best pair from Norway - and among the best pairs in the world, I believe.

Yes, great job Justin! Not to sound ungrateful, I would like to suggest uploading the files to a free storage site, like mediamax.com, so people can download the orginal file - in that way, the quality of the film will be kept as the original - without Youtube "distortion". Anyway - great stuff!

A lot of forcing bids here; 3♦ is probably the only non-forcing one... I think I would like to show maximum 2card support in some fashion. 3♥ would certainly be slamish, but would it not deny spade cue? Also, with a beginner or alike, (ALMOST like myself ;) ), I would not take the chance of partner passing 3♥, saying it was invite only.... (yes, they do exist!) What's wrong with 3♠? Some might argue it would be splinter, but when partner is limited, I am in the driver seat..... Cue-bidding and setting trumph would be my choice. Edit: But as many of you have said - why not keep it simple. Both 3♣ and 4NT are perfectly valid bids.

How was the documentary? I would really like to see it. Anyone got an idea how to view it online - or download?

Why not raise hearts.... excellent point! I stand corrected - on all levels! You nailed my partners analysis

[hv=d=s&v=n&s=sa10xxhaxdakxxxxcx]133|100|Scoring: IMP 1♦-1♥ 1♠-2♣* 2♦-2♥ 3♦-4NT[/hv] Now what - just played on BBO. As south - I feel partner has showed his hand well. Edit: 4NT is 03/14 RCKB 4SF is accepted, and slam invit is also accepted, the way I see it. He must accept my diamonds, given him not bidding 3♥. Right? He might very well have a solid 6 card heart-suit or at least KQJxx of hearts. And the ace of clubs, he would not ask with no keycards himself. Should I be afraid of him passing my 5♦ respond playing 03/14? Guess this is a good example of why 14/30 is better... For you who played, and bid the hand correctly, you'll know North has ♠K ♥KQJxxxx ♦Jx ♣AKx. My respons - the fatal 7♦ which was DBL, and the magic lead of a heart to RHO's void. Trumphs was 4-1 - the ugly way - down 2. Should I correct after the double? Should I flee to 7♥/NT? Is 14/30 a perfect example of superiority here? Any thougths on 1♦-2♥ as GF slam invit as an alternative auction?

Is there a thread discussing this?

Bidding goes: 1♠ -pass-2♣ -pass 2♠*-pass-3♥ -pass where 2♠ forcing 4♥ -pass-4NT What is agreed? Has opener denied 4 card hearts? Heart has been bid, and rebid, is not hearts trumph? Why not show Kxx and diamond stopper, bidding 3NT? - South responded 5♣=1/4 aces. He held the ♥K + ♠A....

Not just some, most in fact. But that's because "everybody" here play 1M-1NT-2NT as conventional GF. 1♠-1NT-3♥ also show 5-5 then. I actually asked this question in another thread 1M-1NT-2NT. But, yes, I agree with this, but it remains undiscussed with my current partner.

♣ was not lead from south, ♦ Qxx south - but you are right. Luck ain't part of this game.

[hv=d=w&v=n&w=saq106hqj973dakca6&e=skj9432hkdj865c108]266|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] The only comfort is that no one in the field found slam, including nationals. Our bidding went: 2NT-3♣ Puppet 3♥*-4♠ Partner misunderstood 3♥. Why she did not transfer, is another story. Why I passed, is still beyond me, but 3♠ would be forcing.... so...

[hv=d=w&v=n&w=sjxxxhqjxxxdcakjx&e=skxha9xxxdaj10c9xx]266|100|Scoring: IMP Small ♣ from N[/hv] Right or wrong, I went on bidding 3♠. 1♥-2NT 3♦-3♠ 4♣-4♦ 4NT-5♥ 6♥-p 4♣ cue-bid minimum, whilst 3NT would be serious slam interest. I guess it was my 4♦ that convinced my partner...? Slam found and made, as the only table. ;) Mostly because the K of ♥ was single in north together with the 3-3 break in clubs, which meant I did not have to rely on the Ace of ♠ in N. The lead was in my favour. A small spade might have made me go buy a coffin. Partner has a minimum and maybe I do too. I may have upgraded a bit to much - but as several of the post has mentioned, a bare minimum may be enough. I am interested in finding out how to re-evaluate my hand correctly during the auction. It is not much fun to have overbid and made, merely to hear a sarcastic note of how ridiculous it is finding slam on the given deal. I have a feeling it backfires more than it gives profits too.... Should I have signed off in 4♥ after partner's 4♣ bid which denied serious slam interest (=3NT)?

I have actually been reading the theories of Zar Points - and I am finding it intriguing. I am looking for a well defined system, though, taking the approach the author suggests: 1C and 1D opening as strong. However, my search is being prevented by other pressing matters, so ... But, I will continue my search.