Facing a passed hand, pd will more often than not have opening values as we play this with the given vulnerabilty, so its not clear, whose hand it is. Giving them a guess might pay. What would you bid as Dealer with a third-hand-opener ♠ xx ♥ Qxxx ♦ KDxxx ♣ Ax ? The actual Opener had: ♠ xx ♥ AQxx ♦ BTxxx ♣ Ax Without the push You will describe your hand perfectly by Lebensohl-convention
[hv=d=s&v=n&s=sxxxhktxda9xc108xx]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] Playing R/S-Style The bidding went: pass pass 1[d] 2 double ? a) Do You raise now? :( Would You raise in nvul? c) Would You act otherwise, if West would have been dealer? If You don't raise in some case, what smallest changes of the hand would qualify in then for a "push-bid"?
[hv=d=n&v=n&s=sqtxxxht8xdjxcaxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Weak-NT,ACOL-Major-first-style pd opens 1♦ RHO 2SA (5-5-Majors), do You double for Your desire to play 3Major doubled? Say You double, RHO bids a natural 3♣, pd and RHO pass. What is Your bid?
No, a classic mixed raise would be xx KTxx xx Axxxx Nice shape, good ODR, too strong for 3 HE (Preemtive), Too weak for 2NT For a preempt 3H he mentioned a hand like x KBxx xx BTxxx
As Overcaller I would take 2D + 3H from advancer as 3Card-support (max. 4Cards with low ODR) and invitational values (something like 7Losers and 3 Controls outside).
[hv=d=w&v=n&s=sqxhaxxxxdtxcqjxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] LHO opens 1D pd overcalles 1H (8-18HCP, mostly 5 Cards) RHO passes You play Robson-Segal-Style, what IMO implies, that You can't bid 2D respective 2NT, is it clearcut to bid 4H?