mindofmike

IMPs against BridgeBaron. [hv=pc=n&s=sakjt743hakq8d9ca&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1dp1h]133|200[/hv] How much of a gambler do you feel like being? Some number of spades, or is this the time to get tricky? At the table, I figured I might never get another legitimate opportunity to make a call like this, so I just shot out 6♠. All pass. The full deal, with play: [hv=pc=n&s=sakjt743hakq8d9ca&w=s8hj32dakt52cqjt9&n=s65h64d8743ck7654&e=sq92ht975dqj6c832&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1dp1h6sppp&p=dad3dqd9dkd4d6s3cacqc4c2hah2h4h5hkh3h6h7h8hjs6h9s5s9sj]399|300[/hv] +11 IMPs against the opposing +420. Yeah, it was a lucky guess, but I figured West for three hearts, five diamonds, and (if East's carding is to be believed) four clubs, leaving room for only one spade. Can't test for the stiff queen, unfortunately, but it worked out.

In the sequence 1♦-1♠-X-XX, how is the redouble typically defined? (The double is, of course, negative.) Two ideas I had: 1) Since the double of an artificial bid is a lead direct, the redouble of an artificial double should be as well; in this case, redoubler is saying, "Lead a heart!" 2) I've heard of something called a Snapdragon double, which applies after 1x-1y-1z; a double here shows a decent hand in the fourth suit and tolerance for partner (maybe Hx or xxx). Since the double, again, was effectively a heart bid, on the given sequence the redouble would be a decent hand (7-10?), five good clubs, and spade tolerance. This leaves 2C free to show the same hand, but with at best two small spades. Is there a standard interpretation for this bid, and if so, does it have a name? Mike

Thanks to everyone for the responses. A few thoughts: 1) Many mentioned an inverted minor raise to 2D on the first round; however, we play that this 100% denies a four-card major, so 1S is somewhat forced. 2C, similarly, is the only option we have; 3C would be GF, and while I'm an agressive bidder, I still don't have it (make my hearts KQx, and I'd consider it). 2) After thinking it over, here's the sequence that works best in our methods: 1♦-1♠ 2♣-2♥(1) 2NT-3♦ 3♠(2)-4NT(3) 5H(4)-5NT(5) 6C(6)-6NT(7) (1) I'm not sure this technically falls under the umbrella of "fourth suit forcing," but it's played as artificial. (2) Cuebid in support of diamonds. (3) RKCB (4) Two keycards w/o ♦Q. (5) King-ask (specific kings) (6) King of clubs. (7) At this point, North can count 11 tricks; to make the 3S cuebid, South must have some extra values, so he trusts him to find a twelfth trick somewhere. I still don't see how to reach the grand, but 6NT+1 will matchpoint significantly better than 6♦+1. Thanks all, Mike

[hv=d=s&v=b&n=sk965ha6dkqj63caj&s=sahk74dat852ckq95]133|200|Scoring: MP[/hv] Opponents are silent throughout; some of our relevant conventions are inverted minors and RKCB. Our sequence was a bit oversimplified: 1D-1S-2C-6D; partner decided to just shoot it. Any thoughts? Mike

I was the original poster's partner on this hand. This was a new partnership. We had not discussed much of anything beforehand, simply agreeing standard bidding (which I took to mean SAYC), standard carding, and 1430. The sequence 2NT-3S is not defined in SAYC. I personally prefer it to mean the minor-suit slam try that partner intended it to mean, but wasn't sure I could safely assume that. Knowing that the convention was in play, I probably would have responded 4D to indicate a minimum (2NT was 20-21) with a diamond fit. Then partner can possibly cuebid 4S with his singleton (I'll be able to infer the shortness from my hand), and I can either bid 4NT to check for whether the ace is there, or just bid 6D myself. Since I wasn't sure we were using MSS, 3NT was intended to show a balanced minimum and invite partner to make the next move. As it happened, it was passed (not necessarily a bad move). I received a spade lead (won in hand), cashed the Kd, ran the Jd to the queen and ace, cashed three more diamonds (discarding a heart as North pitched two clubs while South threw spades). Then I crossed to the Ac and, when North showed out, finessed South for the Qc - making seven. (I was intending to play for the drop in diamonds anyway, but figured I'd give myself an extra chance if West covered. Once North tossed two clubs, I figured on a drop again, but changed my mind when he showed out.) +720 was good for 76.79% of the matchpoints; only three out of 29 pairs bid and made slam. In the absence of agreements to cover West's hand type, I don't see how to get to slam. Since SAYC doesn't include MSS, how can it be bid? Mike