Helmer

[hv=d=e&v=n&n=saq4h95d65cqj8632&w=sk10hk6dakqj1074c105&e=sj8762h43d32cak94&s=s953haqj10872d98c7]399|300|Scoring: MP[/hv] East bid ♠ South bid ♥ West bid ♦ Contract 5 ♦ Lead: ♣ Queen. After the board my partner was so happy about his ♣-lead, and that he didn't lead my suit ( ♥ ). Furthermore he thought it was so brilliant that when he got tricks in spade, end-played declarer - so that I suddenly got 2 ♥ tricks. I told him that there was absolutely nothing to be happy about - his lead, actually gave away the contract, but as declarer didn't un-blok his ♣ 10 - he was unable to finess my partner - and then discard a spade, on a high ♣. That declarer - twice in dummies hand - not playing a ♥ towards the declaring hand, is his mistake not our braveness. Am I right or totally wrong, when I say that the lead gave away the contract, if we had had a reasonable good declarer? Thanks :angry:

[hv=d=n&v=n&s=sa1094hq94dj42ca87]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] Bidding. Your partner opened 1 ♦ Opponent overcalled 1 ♥ I bid d (negativ, exactly 4 card ♠) 4th hand passed Partner re-bid 1 NT (12-14) Opponent passed I passed (maximum 25 pts together - and no real suit to make tricks) 4th hand doubled Partner passed Opponent 2 ♥ Now you - ?????? In a diagram (would love if there was a generator for such as well) N E S W 1♦ 1♥ D P 1NT P P D P 2♥ ? What's your bid? ************** Well to me it was a 100% clear double - it could go down but I had to find some funny ways to get our tricks. Partner had - Qx - Axx - KQxxxx - xx My partner greeting me with the words that my double was stupid, and that I am a donkey - that one was new to me!!!! I could find some other ways to bid my partners hand. Rebid 2 diamonds. When doubled in 1nt - take out in 2 diamonds. When opps doubled in 2 hearts: take out in 3 diamonds (or 2 nt). A club or spade lead and we are down one in 3nt.

That was how I ruled it - as they were playing the wrong board. But I could not find anything - directly saying - that it also counts for a pair sitting at a wrong table.

First round finished. One pair walked to the wrong table, leaving only one table free. A second pair now walks to the only available table - without checking on the table card - now this pair is also sitting at a wrong table. Halfway through the first board of round 2 - one of the pairs realize that they are sitting at table 2 instead of 7. Table 7 already finished the first board of round 2. What to do now? I tried to look in the law book that I had available, but couldn't find anything. I had to make a call (for now). I ruled as if they had actually played the wrong board. And said that the score for the finished board stands. And asked the two involved pairs to swap table. Furthermore - later when the correct pairs are going to play the boards - 40/60 to the innocent pair. I told them that actually all 4 involved pairs are responsible - not only the two pairs walking to the wrong table - but all have a duty to check on the "table-runner" - if they play against the correct pair, seating and boards. Can someone help me - maybe with some law numbers as well. Thanks

[hv=d=n&v=b&n=skqj43hkj987d4c74&s=sa1062ha2daj85ckj3]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] North South 1 ♠ 2 ♦ 2 ♥ 3 ♣ (x) 3 ♥ 3♠ all pass I am south - I told my partner I was chocked over the pass, the 3 clubs even she maybe doesn't play 4th suit forcing - in any system I believe a new suit on 3rd level is gameforcing. We do not have a direct 2NT bid as Jacoby or such. I thought we played 4th suit forcing, as she is a very good player (expert). I thought we still would be able to make slam, if she had singleton in clubs. She said: I have minimum, my 2♥, and then 3♥. I said its only showing your hand better, after the double of 3♣, you don't have to bid - so for sure you have 5-5. Anyway - comments on the biddings please, remembering that we do not play 2NT forcing - and we might not play 4th suit forcing. If I had known that - sure I'd bid 4♠, instead of only 3♠, but I thought I made a slam invitation. Thanks, and here another one: [hv=d=n&v=b&n=skqj43hkj987d4c74&s=sa1062ha2daj85ckj3]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] South North pass 1 ♥ 1 ♠ 2 ♣ 3 ♣ 4 ♠ 5 ♣ all pass - making I can't understand the move to 5♣. If there was only a 4-card spades - sure, but now there is a 5-card spades, and knowing partners distribution 3-5-1-4 - well why not play one level lower. For IMPS doesn't matter about major or minor that much. Many discussions about the biddings, Why don't you jump to 3♣? - ANS.: To give us better space to bid, we haven't found fit, and if you can't answer on 2♣ nothing lost - and it doesn't have anything to do with the end bid - does it? But if you only have K93 in spades? Well if I only have K93 - I'll bid exactly the same, and now 5 clubs might go down - because we might have 2 spade losers now + 1 diamond. While in 4 spades it doesn't matter that much - the contract is still making. (And yes - I didn't bid 3♦ as a new 4th suit forcing - as we haven't finished discussion the previous board) :unsure: Thanks - enjoy

[hv=d=s&v=b&n=saq3h10964dkj53ckj&s=skj64hda2ca1097654]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Biddings: South opened 1 ♣ West overcalled 1 ♥ North 3 NT All pass - and one down. --- South said he didn't want to go for (bid) 5 - 6 ♣, because of the poor suit, though usually partner would have some kind of club support - and another reason some if not for the many wasted points in hearts. --- North said you do not know how to bid, I promise club support (KJ !), and when you do not have heart stoppers you should move to clubs etc. What do you think?

[hv=d=e&v=b&s=sak874haqj9732djc]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] My partner strongly blamed me for opening 2 ♣ on the above hand. What is your opening bid? Do you agree with opening 2 ♣ - when it is the only strong bid you have? * * * * * * * * * * My partner blamed me for opening 2 ♣ on the hand above. My comment was that I'd do so until the day I die. He replied: "Die quickly for the bridge community I mean." 2♣-2♦ 2♥-3♣ 3♠-4♦ 4♥-4 NT 5♠-6 NT doubled and redoubled, 1 down. ... a little later... he opened 1♦-2♠(weak) 3 NT-4 ♠ (doubled) ---- would be one off 4 NT...... 4 down..... MODIFIED: Weak WAS agreed He had - K - Kxx - AK10xxx - Kxx I had - J10987xx - xx - x - xxx Yes, I am not going to play with him again..... :P

Twice during the past week we had a bidding sequens 1X - 1Y - 3NT. The first one we agreed that the rebid 2NT was the correct bid, as the hand had 18-19 HCP and 2-3-4-4 distribution. But what does the 3 NT rebid show? I guess it would be the same meaning for Acol and SAYC - while 2/1 must be different. Is it the same if it is 1 ♣ - 1 ♦ 3 NT as for 1 ♣ - 1 ♥ 3 NT as for 1 ♥ - 1 ♠ 3 NT I know I have a book (back home) in which it is explained like - thanks partner, you bid the suit in which I am weak (or the reason for which I couldn't open 2NT). That would say hands like: ♠ AKx - ♥ x - ♦ Ax - ♣ AKQ10xxx ♠ AQ - ♥ KJx - ♦ x - ♣ AK10xxxx ♠ x - ♥ A10 - ♦ KQJ10xxxx - ♣ AK ♠ AKx - ♥ x - ♦ KQJxx - ♣ AK10x Whats your say? What does the system say - and what is your agreement with your partner?

[hv=d=s&v=b&n=s108h10532da982cak7&s=skj62h76dj107cj1098]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] S W N E Pass 1♠ DBL RDBL 2♣ 2♥ Pass 2NT Pass Pass 3♣ DBL all pass Possible other bids from my hand: Pass - with a chance that partner bids a red suit. 1NT - promissing a spade stopper - and some kind of points. I (S) asked, "Why compete against possible 2NT?". And then the discussion started. Anyway my partner wasn't satisfied.

2♦ and 3♣ losers. Their 3♦ though will be 2 down :lol: .

[hv=d=s&v=b&s=sak1054hkjdq102c1094]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] S W N E 1 ♠ - P - 2 ♠ - 3 ♦ P - P - 3 ♥ How many ♥ do you expect from that bid? 4 - 5 - 6 or more? And what is you next bid? Do you stay or correct? ----- My partner had: ♠ Q73 ♥ A8763 ♦ J3 ♣ 852 I passed 3 ♥, as I expected a 6 card - but of course limited points as he/she didn't bid 2♥ in first round. If only a 5 card why introduce it? Any comments are appreciated.

Hi I sub'd in a tourney on BBO. 3 boards from there - please post any comments. Scoring MP. Board 1. This was first the time my partner said anything to me - "You should double 4♥ - not bid". Well that was a warm welcome. I could clearly see that their 4♥, would go down, but now I went down in 4♠, but I thought the hands looked differently. E S W N 1♣ 1♦ 1♥ X 4♥ 4♠ P P X P P P North South(I) Q10842 A765 AJ62 73 105 AQ982 86 95 Of course ♦ king could be finessed in lead - and a ruff to partner - and so on - and dummy had supported on KQ10 - as he thought partner had a 5-card ♥. Well a bad board - but I didn't feel that bad about it - but ok it was a bad dicision. ************ Board 2 E S W N 1♣ X 1♦ 1♥ 1N P 2♦ 2♥ 2N P P X a.p. East West(I) Q97 1064 K85 1094 A85 KJ1092 A1082 53 Well here I was accused of being a beginner bidding twice on my 4HCP and a 5-card ♦. I was simply bidding as I'd always do upon a double - promissing nothing - but ♦. I said "1NT - and opener's hand is shown - no more bids". My 2♦ to play. After three rounds of ♥ - which my partner won with the king - my partner played a ♦ to my king and finessed opposite way round - to the queen - from the one making the take-out double. And now - blocking the suit - 2 diamond tricks in dummy. 800. 1NT would make - 2 ♦ most likely one down - 2NT - should be only one down. I believe it must be obvious to finess a ♦ through South. ************* Board 3 My partners hand only ♠95 ♥K2 ♦AJ987 ♣KJ82 They opened 1♠ 2♦ (from my partner's hand) and they 4♠ pass from me, and pass from opener. Now... 5 ♦ frm my partner's hand. We were lucky, they bid 5♠ - making 6, (partner forgot to take the ♦ace). "5♦" - I said "If you want to bid again on that hand - why not 5♣, and let me choose". "Are you totally beginner or what", my partner replied". I had 6 card clubs (AQxxxx). 6 ♣ a good bid against their 650 - 500 only.' ***** Please post any comments - thanks.

[hv=d=s&v=b&s=s52h963d5432c10943]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Pass - 1♣ - Dbl - 1♦ Pass - 1 NT - Dbl - 2♣ Pass - Pass - Dbl - Pass ??? What would you do? Thanks all. ........................... Well I bid like I learned to do - 3rd double is almost certain for penalty. Pass - what other options did I have? 2 ♥. 2♣ won - because dummy made it possible for declarer to make a spade finess. It might go down if p played otherwise, but then it will all depend on declarer. ...................... Partner had: Q8xx AKJ4 AKJ 72 opps declarer: KJ97 10875 Q8 AKJ opps dummy: A106 Q2 10976 Q865

My opps opened 1 ♦ - my partner bid 1 NT What is my bid 2 ♦ ? Is it transfer as usual, or is it a gameforcing bid? ------------------------- I bid it as a transferbid, as I can force later on in the bidding. Our opps doubled - pass from my partner. Now I bid 2 ♥. Still my partner (wanted to) understand it as gameforcing - so he bid 3 NT. I had 8 pts though - but one off.

[hv=d=n&v=e&s=s8432h42dq74cq765]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] Pass Pass 1♦ Double 1NT all pass My point was: a) Declarer seems to hold a clubsuit - as no major was bid, nor support for his partners opening suit. Yes I know he might bid 1NT - with some kind of major suit - and maybe a lot of diamonds for his partner. :) The take-out double should have majors (other suits) - and as we seem to have some kind of lenght in spades rather chose a spade.