Orla

I was holding this hand when my partner opened 2NT (20 - 21HCP) ♠K 7 ♥K J 5 ♦T 6 ♣K J T 7 6 3 I considered the possibility of a slam in clubs. We have a maximum of 32 HCP. It makes for sure if I am declarer. P is holding: ♠A J 3 ♥4 2 ♦A K Q J 9 ♣A Q 4 We do play 4-way transfer. So, is there any way of bidding to get to slam - if so, how? Or shall we just chalk it up to one that got away?

This has come up in discussion a few times and I must say I have problems understanding the logic. So, can somebody explain it to me. I have 15 points and a 5-card major. My partner responds 2♣/♦. Up to now, I had been responding 3NT, because I had learned that you have game in 3NT with 25pts. Now, I have learned that 3NT promises more than 15pts. I was under the assumption that responder could pass 2NT ... Ok my question is: What is 1M - 2m - 2NT .... and may partner pass? What is 1M - 2m - 3NT .... ?

I will show the whole deal in a while. However let me ask this question: If this hand is not strong enough to open 2♣, why are we taught the idea of counting losers. From what I have learned, the hand only has three losers. (Of course, it would be nicer if the ♥Ace was a ♣Ace)

Holding this hand, as dealer and playing 5-card majors, what would you open? [hv=d=s&v=n&s=sakq762ha3d10ckq92]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Please give your reasons.

This hand came up during a just-for-fun teams afternoon of live bridge. Scoring was IMPs: ♠ J ♥ A K X X X X X ♦ X ♣ K X X X What would you open in 1st or 2nd seat? If you open 1♥ what is your rebid after 1♠ and why?

Sorry, I always forget that. We were all white and playing IMPs.

Could you explain why? Also could you say what you would bid and why?

A difference of opinion, so I was told to take it here. :) Bidding goes: Pass - Pass - 1♠ - ? In fourth seat do you double for take out or bid your clubs holding: ♠ 8 6 ♥ K 8 5 ♦ K Q T ♣ K J 9 8 7

The way I see it is: Partner did not react to 1NT. He knows I have at least 1 spade, giving us 6+spades. What is the problem with showing that he has 5 spades at level 2, rather than risking a 4 2 "fit" at level 3? I know from the bidding that he is not strong. So, we have quantity rather than quality. The fact that responder has bid NT probably means that s/he has the minors.... I still do not get the double. :rolleyes:

Sorry, we were all non-vulnerable. New partner, playing SAYC, IMPs.

First hand at the table. Dealer opens 1♥ - P - 1NT - P - 2♥ - P - P - double The re-opening/balancing double was made with this hand: ♠ X X X X X ♥ X ♦ X X ♣ A K X X X That was the first and last board, because declarer told my partner that he was an idiot. :lol: After leaving the table, I had a short discussion with my partner and said that, for me, a take-out double denies a 5-card suit. He disagrees. When I said: "I do not double with a 5-card suit" he replied: "Like all hard and fast rules, it's a bad one, but you must do as you see fit" (There is no arguing with an "expert" :blink: ) My question is: Having doubled for take out with a 5 1 2 5 hand, what does partner do when I bid 3♦? What do you think?

The other evening, playing in our club. we had this hand: Partner/Dealer ♠AQT98X ♥A763 ♦- ♣AK7 Bidding goes 1♠ -- 2♦ -- 2♥ My question is: When I bid 2♦, do I promise partner not to pass his next bid? When he bids 2♥ and I cannot support either major, must I bid 2NT? As it was, I had this hand. ♠XX ♥Q9XX ♦AQT9X ♣QX I was absolutely minimum for my 2♦ bid. I didn't pass 2♥, but was almost tempted because I thought 2♥ was weakish and I didn't see game. Basically, two questions arose from this hand: Should my partner have shown his strength by bidding 3♥ after I showed my 10+pts? Is 2♥ (a new suit) from partner always forcing? We need to hear comments

This hand came up in our bridge club on Friday. Later a few of us sat down together and discussed the bidding. Holding ♠ K D 2 ♥ K T 5 3 2 ♦ A J 7 4 ♣ T Partner ♠ A J T 8 7 ♥ A D 9 6 4 ♦ Void ♣ K 9 4 I opened 1♥ My partner bid 4♦. I bid 4♥ (thinking my values in ♦ were worthless). Someone suggested I bid 4♠ after 4♦ Later, we came to the conclusion that maybe Jacoby would be the better bid - leaving us more room to investigate the hand. What do you think responder should bid after 1♥? Edit: Sorry the D = Q. Arrggghh I wrote the hand down in my club and had a brain oops when I posted.

(Yes, thank you, Rob, my description of the bidding was sloppy) I know that partner has more clubs than diamonds, otherwise he would have bid diamonds first. I know that RHO is doubling for ♦, ♥ or ♠ (apart from clubs). So, have I got it correct, because partner is strong and balanced - with his second double - he is telling me to bid ♥ or ♦ at level 3, although they are, more or less, the suits that our (strong 11+pts) opponent has? Why?

Partner opens 1♣ RHO doubles I pass and her partner bids 1♠ Partner doubles. RHO bids 2♠ I pass LHO passes Partner doubles again. Now, is this double for take out or penalties? After the first double, had RHO passed I would have taken it out and bid 2♣. After the 2♠ I was off the hook. I was weak holding: ♠ 852 ♥ 942 ♦ QT53 ♣ Z75 What was going through my mind was: I know partner is strong. I know LHO has 0 - 7pts, otherwise he would jump bid. The original doubler should be short in clubs. Why does partner not rebid them? I do know that partner does not have spades - because I have 3 If I bid a suit, other than clubs, it would be a suit that RHO wanted. Anyway, what would you have done?