Hi All, My friend sent an interesting hand to me. Opp opened 1NT and my friend and his partner have a good hand West opened 1nt - North partner passed - east opp p passed- south active hand: South S A K Q 10 9 H 9 5 D K Q C 9 8 5 2 Just to make things easier: North hand: S J 7 6 H Q J 7 4 D A J 10 8 2 C 7 Now if South uses DONT and calls 2c (4 clubs and 5 card higher- spades in this case) is it the right bid? 1a If u think 2c overcall is the right bid, then the north partner will probably call 2d to deny clubs and ask partner to correct Accidentally, in this case partner actually also has 6 card d support, 2d will look like a deny of clubs and ask overcaller (south) to call his next suit 1b. In this case, after North’s 2d (apparently a deny call of 2c), if south calls 2s, what is north’s best call? I want to know if they could reach 4s somehow using DONT 1c Imagine, if North had only 1 spade support when south bids 2s, should North bid 3d or something else to find better fit or just pass? What I mean is how can he show actual 6 card diamond? Should he bid 3d after 2c; I guess not 1d is 2c a right call to start with? Although c and s shape is 4/5 here, clubs is very weak here; so I am even confused about 2c overcall using DONT here 2. Should we use a totally different approach than using DONT for a case like this? Can anyone clarify please?