Laplace0

Thanks!

Despite (1) and (2) your comments (3) and (4) are sound and valuable. Thanks!

After, 1♥-1♠-pass,i had to bid with ♠xx♥Kxx♦K10xx♣AKJxx. Playing transfer advances, with 2♣,2♦ not forcing after an first level intervention,2N Jordan, 2♥ limit raise with 3 card support, no forcing bid available.

You believe (apparently strongly) that a GF jump shift describes the hand better than a jump rebid. There are a variety of weak hands with some HCP in hearts not suitable for game. But since I think that 3♥after 3♦ is not a natural force (how to bid else weak major 5=4 hands), leaving responder without a forcing rebid, a jump shift (but only for the last reason) is perhaps a better (?) alternative.

I wouldn't say 3♦ is obvious at all; this seems too much of an underbid to me, so I'm with the 3♣ bidders. But from responder's perspective, if opener did bid 3♦, you still have a natural, forcing 3♥ response. You believe (apparently strongly) that a GF jump shift describes the hand better than a jump rebid. There are a variety of weak hands with some HCP in hearts not suitable for game. But since I think that 3♥ after 3♦ is not a natural force (how to bid else weak major 5=4 hands), leaving responder without a forcing rebid, a jump shift (but only for the last reason) is perhaps a better (?) alternative.

Thanks for the comments concerning the use of unbalanced Diamond, which is efficient in this case. Also any kind of strong club (precision, super precision, etc.) could be effective. But what about the natural 2over1. The obvious 3♦ jump rebid leaves Responder without a logical forcing response, driving him to a 3NT underbid. Is there a natural solution in the context of 2over1?.

Actually, bidding 2♣ with 3 clubs happens with regularity.

Thanks again. Good analysis showing the importance of 4SF. I used 4SF but with a diverse priority order (first stopper, second 3card support) and missed recently a spade slam. I try now the order you proposed. I think to remember, something similar is described in Hardy's 2over1 book. Don't know which is the originator.

Fine. I guess this is Hardy-staff. I will use it in the proposed order until some NT contract is missed :rolleyes: Thanks all for the comments.

Ok with 3♠. Now 2♦ ask for stopper, show stopper or asks for 3card support in♠

What means after the sequence 1-♥-1♠-2♣ a 3♠ bid in 2 over 1. How is a 4 color forcing 2 ♦ to interpret?

Sorry, Partner had 6♦ NV against V. My double was DSIP and I don't blame Partners decision going to the 5th level. The blind 4♠ bid with a 5card suit finding a strong 4card holding in partner could be bbo "specific". 1 down in 4 ♠ is bad score in MP if 3♣ are makeable but playing IMP I should perhaps pass, I agree (?). Glad that many of you would have bid 3♣ and thanks all for the comments.

Partners hand was: ♠Q8,♥Q98,♦KQT7632,QJ I bid 3C, slight overbid :angry:, LHO jumped to 4S, which I doubled. Final contract 5C doubled 3 down. 4S are cold on a heart finesse, despite this our score was -8 IMPS. Anyway, I feel uncomfortable to bid NT with this major holding. By the way, our side can make only 3 tricks in NT.

How to bid the following hand in 2over1: ♠87 ♥86 ♦J106 ♣AKT986 after a 1♦ opening bid by Partner and silent opponent. 2 ♣ is GF and 3♣ is invitational with 9 to 12 points (Hardy). I excluded the non forcing 1NT bid for obvious reasons.

Lets call A your definition of TWCB and B the bidding sequences described for weak 5-9 majors hands. I and many others call the union A U B as TWBC. You and many others prefer to exclude B and give them another name or let unnamed. Fine, but I would never dare to claim you have not understand TWCB. Anyway thanks for the reply.

Actually I agree with almost all comments. But I will continue to play TWCB with 6-9 points. Imagine such a 6-9 point hand with 5S and 4H. So, 1C-1S-1N-2H is playable as signoff with a 5=4 major distribution. Same with a 6-9 point hand with a 5+card major, where 1C-1M-1N-2M can be played as signoff. Anyway, thanks all for the replies.

How to bid as responder a weak hand (6 to 9) with 4-4 in the majors?

Thank you all; very helpful!!

Thank you both. I thought 2♣/2♦ shows a 4+ suit and 2♥ a 5-carder. Is the proposed multi 2♣ part of a more comprehensive development?

How to bid the following hand ♠Axx♥KQJ9♦QJ10♣KQx after a 2/1 1S opening, considering that 2N shows a 4-card support, RKC is problematic with this D holding and 2H requires a 5-card holding?

Thanks and sorry for the bad writing. Anyway you all guessed right, it is the Q (Queen) of diamonds. I consider to implement the Wolff convention after a strong 2 NT; where can I find a detailed description of the transfer system. Mikeh, "established" and "good" are already strong constrains. Thanks all again for the replies, very helpful!!

How to bid the following hands in 2/1, dealer North? North:S A9 H A86 D AJ3 C KQ1085 South:S 8 H KQ75 D KD52 C A973

Summarising, 1N-2♣-2M-3m after a strong NT is mostly played as GF, leaving very weak hands with 5+ minor and a 4 card major as only alternative to pass. Actually, such hands are becoming non biddable.

Thank you all. As I see,fairly and expert standard use it as GF. One have then to pass with the weak hand, or?

Sorry, my question was incomplete. After long time playing various strong club systems, I decided to try 2 0ver 1, following the book of Max Hardy. I adopted most of the material presented there (forcing Smolen, minor suit Stayman, Jakoby transfers including Walsh relay, etc., but I have a problem with mixed minor-major 2 suited hands. For example after a 1nt opening (15-17 HCP), I believe a weak unbalanced hand with a 5+ minor suit and a 4 major suit, say 2-4 HCP, reserves a Stayman bid to discover a possible major fit and should retain the escape of 3 in the minor. Hardy and many others I discovered in the Web proposes to use this for slam going hands. Lets start with this. Is my problem naive?