hammberry

Matchpoints; none vul LHO opens 1D, partner overcalls 1NT; RHO doubles we ended in 3S, for the best possible score partner held: AQxx, --, KQJxxxx, xx What arguments could I use to suggest that 1NT was misguided?

Unfavorable vulnerability at IMPs South dealt herself: KT4, AQT9852, 6, 96 What's the best start? South actually opened 3H, hoping to describe her hand immediately and stifle non-vulnerable competition. North, holding: J963, J76, AQ8, T87 passed, and we missed a game. At the other table, the bidding was 1H - 2H - 4H. A teammate said "With 7 hearts and a singleton, it's obvious to bid a vulnerable game." What do you think?

IMPs, favorable vulnerability My hand: Q6, 84, QT64, AJ752 LHO dealt and passed. Partner opened 1D, and RHO overcalled 1S We play two-over-one game force. Partner's 1D is four cards unless he has both majors. My options seemed to be: 2D, 3D (preemptive), 2S (limit raise or better), 3C (fit-jump) How good is my hand & what should I do now?

IMPs, unfavorable vulnerability The bidding went: Me LHO Partner RHO Pass 1♦ (5+) 2♣ Pass 2♥ Pass 3♦ Pass ?? I held: T8xx, AKTxx, Q9, xx What's partner doing? What should I do now? (Partner is a youngish Silver Life Master. He's studied bidding theory carefully but resists ad hoc innovations)

IMPs, favorable vulnerability RHO opened 2H I held AT9x, Ax, AJTxxx, A and chose to double. LHO passed, partner bid 2NT (lebensohl) and RHO passed (2H) - dbl - (Pass) - 2NT; (pass) What's my best call? I chose 4D, which partner raised to 5D, holding Kxx, 9x, 8xx, JTxxx I jumped because 3D seemed too weak (Marty Bergen gives AQxx, x, KQ8xxx, Qx as an example of a 3D bid) and 3H, then 4D as too strong. My partner insisted that 4D shows 18-19 points. What's a good approach to this situation?

Here is a passage from Marshall Miles' Bridge From the Top: "The first cuebid almost always shows length, so that the cue bidder's partner can determine how well the hands fit." He criticized cuebidding high card and shortness controls indiscriminately: "if one partner can cuebid a singleton and the other has the king, or vice versa, how can either player tell how well the hands fit?" This advice, similar to that written much earlier by Miles, always seemed convincing to me. Challenged on this approach, I began reading other contemporary books on slam bidding. Ron Klinger, for example, in Cue-Bidding to Slams wrote: "Where the choice is to cue-bid an ace or a void as a first-round control, the 'cheapest-first' rule applies. The same approach is used when the decision is king versus singleton..." Setting aside exceptions (and Miles himself offers some), and setting aside whether to reserve the first cue for first-round controls: 1. Which approach (call them "high card control" versus "shortness control") is generally more useful for advancing but non-expert players? 2. Which approach is more prevalent among expert players using methods similar to two-over-one game-forcing? 3. What other bidding agreements impact this issue?

IMPs, both vulnerable Partner deals and passes, LHO bids 1D I chose to double with AKJ987, A, 3, J8543 The bidding: Pass -- (1D) -- Double -- (2H = weak) Pass -- (3D) -- Double -- all pass We were plus 200, losing 9 imps (partner held: 643, KJ643, KQ84, 6) I was criticized for not bidding spades at either of my chances. Was partner at fault for passing the second double? I'm anxious to learn--what general principles should guide me in overcall vs. double situations? What are the general advantages of overcalling rather than doubling?

Matchpoints, favorable vulnerability. I dealt myself: K9765, 85, KJT872, -- The bidding proceeded: Me LHO Part RHO Pass - (1H) - dbl - (Pass) ?? In fact, I bid 2S & over LHO's 3H, partner bid 3S What now? How should I evaluate this hand, assuming partner has values in clubs as well as the pointed suits?

We play a simple 2 over 1 game-forcing system. After 1S - 2C; 2H - ?? what's the difference between responder's 2NT and 3NT? One view is that 3NT = 15-17 (which means a 5-5 opener must guess whether to rebid his hearts) Another view is that 3NT means "I really want to play here; I'm 12 - 14 with great stoppers and no desire for further exploration" (which leaves 2NT covering a lot of ground) Which view is more commonly held, and which makes more sense?

Matchpoints, none vulnerable I dealt, holding ♠6 ♥T975 ♦QJ85 ♣9763 After two passes, partner opened 1♥, RHO overcalled 2♦. Should I make a single raise or jump to 3♥? What should guide me?

Partner's actual hand (forgive the xx's) ♠AQxxx ♥T ♦Kx ♣J98xx Partner (me in real life) played comfortably in 1 Spade (astonished and sad that there was no balancing!)

Matchpoints, no one vulnerable Sitting fourth hand, I held: K863, 94, AQ762, Q7 After three passes (the opponents passed througout), I opened 1D, partner responded 1S and it was my call. After the hand, there were two strong opinions: First, that a sub minimum opener should now pass versus second, that this is no longer a sub minimum hand and should raise. What do you think, and what should have guided me to a correct decision?

Matchpoints, favorable vulerability. Partner dealt, with the opponents silent I held: ♠QT975, ♥Q9, ♦AQ75, ♣K4 Part Me 1♥ 1♠ 3♣ 3♥ 4♣ 4♦ 4♥ ? Partner is an intelligent Life Master & we're playing a simple 2 over 1 approach. This is our first opener's jump shift auction. Was 4♦ OK? What should I do now?

Both sides vulnerable, matchpoints I dealt and held: ♠JT ♥A63 ♦AT9865 ♣QT Me LHO Part RHO 1♦ 1♠ 1NT Pass 2♦ Pass 3♣ Pass ?? A direct 2♣ response would have been forcing one round only. My clubs suggest 3NT but partner probably thinks this is a part-score auction. How should I evaluate this hand & what should I do?

I posted this on the Usenet, but perhaps you could help: Matchpoints, vul against not North: A53, K, AKQ742, A83 South: K62, J8543, J63, Q4 Our bidding: (North dealt) 1D 1H 3C 3H 4H All pass South believed that showing the 5 hearts was routine, and that North should have tried 3S over 3H. North hated to raise on a singleton, but was unsure of nine fast tricks for 3NT. Please discuss alternatives. We don't have a clear understanding of responder's rebids after opener's jump shift. (Truscott suggests that 1D-1H; 3C-3H shows "?6+" hearts)