Using SAYC convention, we have used Gerber in the past when the opening bid is 1 or 2NT. On this hand we were not vul. The opps passed throughout. I opened 1S, my partner responded 1NT. I jumped to 3D, and my partner bid 3NT. Then I bid 4C, intending Gerber. Partner's hand was singleton low spade, Kxxxxx in hts, QJx in clubs, and 3 small diamonds. Partner passed my 4C. My hand was AQ10xx spades, singleton low ht, Ax clubs, and AQJ9x diamonds. 1) I realize I was being too aggressive with my slam try, but with this bidding sequence, wasn't this a proper place to use Gerber? 2) And even if my partner did not consider it Gerber, shouldn't he at least have bid 4D? Thanks