vladesch

I was the person who bid 3c and it seems the people here agree with me as to its interpretation. This was my hand... 87 765 J95 T9543 My partner said that biddinbg 3c when it was undiscussed was wrong and that I should have settled for 3d. I realized there was a risk bidding 3c but was expecting my partner to interpret it to be weak with c given the bidding. he says that my bid could suggest I hold a 12ish count and be a no trump probe. Personally I would bid 2nt with such a hand. Or perhaps 3nt depending on shape and placement of values. As it is 3c is the only contract that wont be a disaster. It turns out the 1c bidder only had a 3 card suit.

We are vulnerable, the opponesnt not. My partner is dealer and I hold at63 q8 qt64 aq8 The bidding goes.. p-1c-p-1h p-2h-x-p The opponents are playing a natural system. That's as much as we know. Now my partner bids 3c We have various conventions about what cue bids mean in various situations but this is an undiscussed situation. How should I interpret this bid.

We've been playing it as not completely game forcing, but strong interest in game. Not something we have talked about a lot. Just sort of a mutual assumption. Might consider to changing to GF in light of this thread.

Interesting replies. In this case my partner intended 3s as invitational and he had 3 spades. His reason for not bidding 3s on the second round was to find out if I had values in H. His reasoning was that if I had no values in H then his hand was worth an invite. He had qxx xxx jx ak9xx

Playing acol. Bidding goes 1s-2c-2d-2h we play fourth suit forcing. I have a 5-2-4-2 so bidding continues.... 2s-3s. Is partner showing 3 spades in this sequence? It sounds to me as if he doesnt have 3 card support for spades, and prefers notrumps. but has only raised spades since we dont have any other option.

I have been a bit distracted of late, but I do thank people for their replies and will be making this thread known to the director that made that ruling.

Been trying to find an exact ruling on this but all I could find was cases where incorrect explanations are given. Hence I think there is no penalty, but I would like some input. This is Australia, though I doubt that makes any difference. Let's say the bidding goes e:1d w:1s e:2nt w:3nt and before a card is led, north asks the meaning of 2nt. west replies that it shows a 5332 in diamonds with some (irrelevant) point range. The hand is played and it turns out that east only has 4 diamonds. North feels like he has been disadvantaged, but it turns out that wests explanation was totally correct, ie east has just misbid. North feels unfairly disadvantaged and calls the director. The director then rules that east should have announced that he did not have a 5332 before the lead, and east-west get a 1 trick penalty. Was the directors correct?, or is there no penalty because north was given the right explanation?

[hv=pc=n&n=sAQJ85hAKQ54d2c92&s=sK9h6dKJT973cJ743&d=n&v=ns&b=1&a=2dp2h3d3hp3np4dp4nppp&p=cas2dah2]640|480[/hv] North's 2d opening shows a 5-5 2 suiter (not both minors) 11-16 points with all the points in the 2 suits. 2H by south is relay asking for partner to describe his strength and suits. (any other bid by south is correctable) Should south be relaying with 2H or just making some correctable bid? Should north be bidding over 3d with a maximum. If north passes 3d, should south double?

I dont see east as the culprit here. You made a free bid of H so you have about what you should have. West passing 4s is just terrible IMO. Either double or hearts (and I would go with h every time). With the void in s, if partner has no points in s then 6h is probably making. Think of it in terms of a pack that has 30 points in it. You have 17 and your partner has made a free bid, so you probably have at least 26 out of 30 points. Plus you have at least 9 trumps. Got to be worth a try.

I always like to take an optomistic view about opposition contracts that have had to deal with my pre-empt. That is, I like to make the assumption that my pre-empt has disrupted their bidding enough times to sit back and rely on them being in the wrong contract. in this case, N/S have hardly reached their slam scientifically and it could well be wrong. So just pass. For all you know they might be making 7. In any case I would consider it my partners decision since I have no more and no less than I have bid. Partner might be quite happy defending it.

My partner and I play precision. I am sitting south and partner opens 1s showing 11-15 and 5+S I respond 1nt which is forcing for one round in our system. It can be bid on hands that: a) are weak and intend to bid 2s on the next round b) invitational with s support and no shortage c) invitational with 3 card s support and an outside singleton/void d) weak with a 6+ card suit outside spades. Will bid this suit on round 2 (or pass 2c) west now intervenes with 2c and north bids 2d in an uncontested auction north's 2d would show 4d, 2h would show 4h, 2s would show a sixth s, and 2c would be bid on all other hands. Opener can jump if he has a good maximum. So the question is, is a free bid of 2d here showing a 4 or 5 card suit. Another question which people may find a bit silly (and I do to but my partner wont listen) is what should opener bid with 7 spades and 4 diamonds. [hv=pc=n&s=&n=&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1sp1n2c2d]266|200[/hv]

I would pass in first and definitely pass in second. I dont want to mislead partner if he has a reasonable hand. If partner passes I will bid 2c on the second round. In third seat I would bid 1c. I would pass in 4th.

Agree with pass. If we were vulnerable vs non vul I might try 3s on a good day. 3nt is dreaming.

I'm surprised. My partner bid 3NT and I thought it was was too speculative. I would have probably bid 3H myself. I guess I'll have to modify my hand appraisal.

[hv=pc=n&n=sq75hat987dkqjca8&d=en&v=ns&b=1&a=3dpp]266|200[/hv] what would you bid?