zimiaris

Hello! During a recent tournament, this happened to me: Almost before the final pass during the bidding was put on the table, the player that was on the lead, played his leading card. I would like to know, is this legal or is it a "breaking of the tempo" violation? Thank you.

I totally disagree, Just Declare are the only tournaments that you don't have to rely on the robot's stupid bids, where you can get a top or a zero based on purely luck and with a process you don't have any influence on. They are the only robot tournaments I enjoy and play consistently.

[hv=d=e&v=e&b=6&a=pp1h2cpp2hp]133|100[/hv] Bidding system is SAYC. My question is what is the range of points that W may have after this bidding sequence. Edit: Let me elaborate some more. Rebidding by W shows that they have at least normal opening and good 6 card H. What I would like to know is should they rebid if they had e.g. 13-14 points or should they pass? Also how many points should they have to bid 3H instead of 2H?

I was playing in one of the daily tournaments at my club the other day and one of my opponents opened the bidding as dealer with 1♣. After the hand was played I discovered that he had only 3 points. Is this allowed? There were no CC and neither were we alerted in any way that this could be an unusual opening. Take into account that were I play at everybody plays 1♣ opening as a hand with 12-13 points minimum and that because of this bid I was afraid to buy a grand slam that we had and so we scored badly. And a follow up question, is there anyway someone can protect himself from such practices?

In that case what do you think the TD's verdict should have been?

This may be correct, but I would like to know, all of the above taken into account, what the TD's verdict should have been about the incident.

After the explanation, E told me that he and his partner hadn't played many times together and that he might not know what the meaning of his bid was. I told him that in that case he should explain his bid but he refused to do so. On the other hand he didn't state that the explanation was wrong either. After all that I said that I take the explanation as correct and continued with my play. Taking all that into account, what do you think should have been done after the hand was played?

[hv=pc=n&s=sj5h9742d7532c643&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=2d2h3sp4sppdppp]133|200[/hv] I am South. Before doubling I ask opponents if 2D and 3S bids are strong or weak. I get the answer that they are both weak. Thinking that opponents have less than 20 points, I decide to double. 1. Am I allowed to double with the cards I hold? I'm not asking if it's good play, I want to know if it's somehow forbidden. After the end of the hand I see that in fact East has 16 points. 2. Has there a rule violation been committed in this hand? If so, am I allowed of some compensation because of it? Thank you.