kgsmith

The grand is no longer under consideration that after 5♣. The suggestion to bash 6♦ implied "don't bother to ask for keycards." I asked for keycards in case 7♦ was on. North could hold ♠x ♥Ax ♦QJxx ♣AKJxxx.

I could have just bid 6♦, but I was expecting 7♦ to be making. I figured partner had more points for his bid. While using 4♥ (Kickback) or 4♦ (Minorwood)--I suspect 4♦ should be a suggestion to play in this particular auction--is no doubt superior, our reality is ordinary RKCB. I can find lots of material explaining what to do if the opponents overcall or double the 4NT ask (DOPI, ROPI, etc.), but nothing about what to do when they double an RKCB response for lead.

This fascinating situation arose last night in a pairs competition. We were playing a fairly standard 5c major system, better minor system. [hv=pc=n&s=sa62hkjt7dakt4cq8&n=s7hadqj983ckjt762&d=n&v=b&b=13&a=1cp1dp3s(Splinter)p4np5c(1%20or%204)d]266|200[/hv] You might not agree with North's splinter, but my interest lies in how to move forward from here. Our agreements are that I (South) can redouble to show first-round club control, pass without a club control, or bid to show Qx(x) or x (i.e. help if partner has Kxxxx). I was concerned that if partner did not have the CA, 6D would suffer an immediate ruff, so I passed despite holding Qx (hoping to hear a redouble). This went back to North. What do you think he should do? Is pass an option? What principles/agreements should we have to get this one right?

Thanks for the input. (1) I understand that the risk was greater that the two diamonds would be discarded than that three spades could, which suggested the greater urgency of the diamond switch. (2) On the other hand, partner figured to have more spades than diamonds (assuming, for the sake of argument, that the 1NT opener has on average 3.25 cards in each suit), so partner might be likelier to hold the spade ace. I was unsure whether the second point was valid, and if it was, how it weighed against the first. The opponents' bidding was bizarre, but that is how they bid it. :) As it happens, partner held ♠AQxxxx ♥xxx ♦x ♣Jxx.

In a teams match, I found myself in the East position on the auction shown. [hv=pc=n&n=sk76haq98742dk7c6&e=s84h3djt85cat9873&d=e&v=0&b=14&a=p1n(15-17)p2dp2hp4n(RKCB)p5h(2%2C%20no%20Q)p6hppp]266|200[/hv] Partner led the ♣2 (playing 4th best leads from length) to my ace. Assuming partner has one of the remaining aces (the ♥K does not seem helpful), and knowing my partner was unlikely to have led from the K or Q of clubs into a strong notrump, I needed to decide whether to switch to spades or diamonds. Which is the better switch, and why?

Thanks for the inputs. To answer the question about why not 1♦, we do play Walsh style, so 1♠ was required. 4♠ over 1♠ would show a weaker, shapely hand, probably 6-4. Although the splinter with a stiff Ace was undesirable, North is a little stuck for a value bid. It seems from the responses that North should settle for 4♠ over 4♥, and let responder make another push with a little extra, though it would be tricky for an aceless North to push beyond game with a little more.

[hv=pc=n&s=sqj82hkq7djt65c73&w=st6ht6542dk8ckt95&n=sa975haj93dacaq42&e=sk43h8dq97432cj86&d=e&v=n&b=2&a=ppp1c(2%2B)p1sp4d(Splinter)p4h(Cue)p6sppp]399|300[/hv] At IMPs and using a standard "strong and 5" system, we played in 6♠-1 on the ♥4 lead. Where did we go wrong? I assume the auction is the problem. FYI, the heart lead was won with the king, and the SQ run to the SK. A diamond was returned. Partner drew one more round of trumps, took the club finesse and tried to ruff two clubs, using a heart as one entry to dummy. The heart was ruffed for -1.

Thanks for the clarification. It seems like even at reverse vulnerability the general sentiment would be to pass.

Hi all Is it right to bid 3♣ immediately with the South cards, or should one have greater general strength? [hv=pc=n&s=st8hq92d75cakt853&d=w&v=n&b=12&a=1sp2s]133|200[/hv] Thanks, Kevin

Thanks all. Much appreciated, esp. the insightful comments by Ken Rexford (PS: I enjoy your books). To be honest, I (East) never gave a moment's thought to the possibility of a making slam after 1♣-1♥-2♣, and thought 3NT looked the "obvious" place to play. The idea of considering the purity of my hand opposite heart shortage in partner's is interesting indeed, and must provide a rationale for taking several auctions more slowly when the same is present. We might still not be candidates to reach 6♣, but you expose the shallowness (and sloppiness) of my thought process, which is really helpful.

Hi all We were playing ostensibly SAYC. Partner was disappointed to miss 6♣. Would you like to be there? If so, is there a sensible way to get there? [hv=pc=n&w=sa85hdkq95caj9752&e=sqt7haj83da72ckt6&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1cp1hp2cp3nppp]266|200[/hv] Scoring is IMPs, if it helps. Thanks, Kevin

Thanks WesleyC. Much appreciated!

Hi all I am new here, so I hope I get the format right. With no opposition bidding, I played the hand in 6♦ by East on the lead of the ♠8. I would like to know what the best line is. I tried to cash the top two clubs, intending to ruff a third club with the ♦10 and a fourth with the small diamond if necessary. The obvious alternative is to cash three top diamonds and hope the club finesse is right if they don't break. Which of these, if either, is the percentage line? [hv=pc=n&w=sakh7dakq72cakjt4&e=s9754haq863dt4c98]266|100[/hv] For what it is worth, my line failed immediately when clubs were 5-1 and the ♣K was ruffed. Thanks Kevin