marcindz

[hv=pc=n&s=sakt97hqt5da96cj2&n=sq52hak82dq84ca75&d=n&v=n&b=5&a=1cp2sp4sp4np5hp5np6dp6sppp]266|200[/hv] Matchpoints. You are playing against two grandmasters. Lead: 8♣. How would you play this?

Exactly what jack said. But: if you were to use 5431 conventions's 3!s it might be followed with 4!h.

After x!h -> x!h, there are for hands types possible: 1. D(x), 2. 10(x), 3. (x), 4. D10(x) In 1, playing 9!h loses. In 2, playing 9!h gains. In 3, it makes no difference. In 4, it makes no difference. D10x - no difference D10xx - no difference D10xxx - no difference Yes, this is 50/50. Play whatever. Or read from the face of opponent. :)

Hello Dickiegera. This is very special situation: W holds most of the information and he should be asking about more and more. He did that. After 2!C of his partner he had visions of this sort: [hv=pc=n&e=skqjh32dk2cqj5432]133|100[/hv] [hv=pc=n&e=skqjh432dk2cqj542]133|100[/hv] He forces with 2!D bid. After partner's 2!S he couldn't go 4NT, because answer would be 5!C on KDJ!S or KD!S or AD!S or A!S. He needs to put the bidding on hold. 3!C does the job perfectly. The partner will likely go 4!H splinter, which can be followed by 4NT afterwards. After 5!H answer the partner will picture the hand like this: [hv=pc=n&e=saqjh4dq43ck86542]133|100[/hv] [hv=pc=n&e=saq2h4dq43ckj6542]133|100[/hv] Seeing this - W should go for either chance 6!C or sure 5NT. Since after bidding it is sure !D lead... and you go for 2-2 clubs distribution... <40% contract does not seem like the way to go. Should be 5NT. 6 clubs is a very wishful bid.

I would ask myself what I want to achieve. Seems likely that 3NT is makeable easily if S holds any points in spades. My guess is straight 3NT selling no spade stopper, forcing my p to show his spade by passing or go on 4 level and then i will pass being happy with what i got. If I was looking for partscore 3 clubs.

Hello all :) In my opinion the bidding should look something like: 1♥ -> 1♠ [no description needed] 3♥ -> 4♣ 4NT [RKCB] -> 5♠ 6♥ -> 6NT... I will try to explain my thinking in the best way possible: 3♥ shows 6+hearts in midrange: generally speaking around 16PC. It is sort of irrational for the partner then to show 4♣ cue-bid !without hearts! in this sort of situation, but as it seems: worst case scenario there are 30 points in the deal for them, thus Owner of the lonely heart will drag the bidding and after an aces question on hearts he will wait for the 6♥ to pop to drag it for 6NT when the time comes.

[hv=pc=n&s=s8haqt54djt974cqt&w=skj753hj86dk86ca2&n=sqt962h7d32ckj853&e=sa4hk932daq5c9764&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=p1dp1sp1np3nppp&p=djd6d2dqsas8s3s2s4d4sks6s5sqc4]399|300[/hv] Press "Next" until the very last situation shows up. S lays 10♣. GIB says it is winnable... but how?

At those vulns 3!S and 4!S rebid. There is a chance that double would be avoided. At any other - 4!S (judging the worst case scenario is ~[-2]).

In my opinion, you were sort of unlucky, or rather TRICKED by east. 1. Pass from E could mean 0-7PC or up to 11 with balanced, not exactly 10 with 5+ color (IMO HE should bid 1!H) 2. S didn't expect light opening. 3. W made a "gamble style" bid which could be costly, luckily - check point 1. 4. 4!H which S had to double bcoz of points + "WHY WOULD East HAVE 5 HEARTS FOR CHRIST SAKE?" thing.

[hv=pc=n&s=sj853hq9dt96cqt94&w=s2hkj7532daj853c3&n=sq97hat8dkq742cj5&e=sakt64h64dcak8762&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=2h3d]399|300[/hv] I had a very interesting hand today and am wondering what bid is the best in this situation? 2!H is 6-10 6+!H 3!D is natural

I thought that 2♥ is a nobrainer for a second. Then I realised, that 1NT is AFTER 1♥ opening. That means, that my partner opening was rather distribution-wise. Depends if Max or Imp. On Max always heart lead. On Imp and 1NT, could risk spade.