pitack

My partner and I play K-S Updated, but with some additions like Gazzilli, Bourke Relay, and some secondary transfers after 1NT rebids and after Stayman. But our approach to reverses and 1♦-1M-2♣ is by the book.

That solves half the problem. But I wouldn't have known that GIB would take 3♦ by me as a transfer in the same situation.

Hi, I recently played with GIB in tournament #7504 and "we" had a disaster on one hand. I opened 1♠ and the auction was 1♠ 1NT 2NT 3♦ Pass GIB intended 3♦ as a transfer to ♥ and I took it as a natural sign-off. Although in retrospect I like the idea of transfers here, I sure didn't expect it. Is this a well-known treatment in this auction? I didn't note anything on GIB's convention card or system notes. Thanks!

Wow! Thanks for all the replies and discussion. I feel much better now. Yeah, sorry--I noticed the poor wording too late. :( That was the odd part: the TD said nothing. This was my first hand with a TD call, so I sat there waiting for something to happen. Then people started asking me why I wasn't bidding! I obviously need to read up on how the whole TD stuff works. Thanks for telling me! BBO originally showed me finishing 2nd. Wonder if an adjustment was made later...

I'm brand new to BBO (12 logins) and was playing in an Indy tournament with the auction 1♥ (p) 2♥ (p) ? to me. My hand was: ♠xxx ♥AJ9xx ♦KQ10x ♣A FWIW, I liked my hand and decided to explore game with 3♦, presuming no conventional game tries would apply in such a tournament. LHO (with a large number attached to his profile) asked for an explanation. I replied "no agreement". He persisted with "you must explain if asked". I was taken aback by this follow-up, but replied "natural", at which point he summoned the TD. After the hand LHO said that we self-alert here. My questions are: Did I need to alert 3♦? Was my "no agreement" response insufficient? Should I have even answered the follow-up? Was my LHO reasonable, including calling the TD? Thanks!