ajfonty

I'm not seeing the optimism here. I'd bid 4♠. Our hand is great but not extraordinary. If partner then bids 5♣, I bid 5♠. Let partner look at her hand, count her aces, assume I have ♠A, and do the work from there.

I can't imagine very many scenarios where 6♦ doesn't show at least a very nice five ♥s, and two ♠s, asking partner to pick a major suit. My only fear is that we're missing two too many queens. 5NT, intending to pull 6♣ to 6♥ probably achieves the same purpose. I'd imagine partner has at least ♠A, ♠Q, and ♣A. Five ♠s, two ♥s, two ♦s, four ♣s.

2♠ is not unreasonable, trading the extra spade for the terrible suit, but I'd most likely pass and see how the auction develops. Who knows what can happen? Sometimes you can get a little lucky.

Thank you for the responses! The math makes a lot of sense. I guess in hindsight it's reasonable to deduce!

Let's imagine you're the declarer and dummy comes down. You have 6 ♣ cards and dummy has 3 ♣ cards. 4 ♣ cards are thus missing. From basic probabilities I've seen that there is a 50% chance that the remaining four cards break 3-1 between opponents, and 41% chance that they break 2-2. But, I was taking a look at overall hand distribution probabilities, and saw that 6-3-2-2 distribution is much more likely than a 6-3-3-1 distribution (5.64% vs 3.65%). If I'm playing the hand, what probability do I rely on? I get the feeling that the missing card probabilities are more "accurate" and that I should play for the 3-1 break, but I'm interested as to why one methodology is more accurate than another. Thanks in advance!

Hi all, Having run into a couple of nightmare flat dummy hands recently, I've been exploring when to use Stayman (for a four card fit) after partner opens 1 NT (<16). With a balanced hand and game going values, is it worthwhile to explore a 4-4 fit or go straight for 3 NT? Even with a doubleton in many cases I find it plays much like a NT hand would. Thanks in advance

Hi all, I've done some reading into opening leads and have a good idea about them. However, I'm trying to discover what leads to make in tricks after the first but I can't seem to find good sources on the internet. For example, let's say partner and I are defending, and partner leads a low heart. I have a heart tripleton, Ace high. I win with the ace and want to return a heart. This is where my question starts: because I now have a doubleton, do I lead my high card from the doubleton? Or, now that the opening trick is done, can I now make leads that wouldn't fit with the rules of opening leads? I was looking for a resource to explain this on the internet but I couldn't find one. Thanks in advance

[hv=pc=n&s=s98654hj65dq9ckt9&w=skjt73hkda62ca862&n=shaqt97432dkt753c&e=saq2h8dj84cqj7543]399|300[/hv] [hv=d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1hp1sp3hp4hppp]133|100[/hv] Partner played this hand the other day (I was South). I've run it through Bridge Baron and 6♥ makes (I also remember seeing 4♥+2 results in the Results section). One of the ways I try to get better at Bridge is to analyze the hands we've played, but I can't seem to find a way scientifically for N-S to make it to 6♥. In the auction, South bids 1♠ to show 4+ spades and 6+ points; this bid also has the unintended benefit of silencing E-W out of their best fit (spades), but it technically does not confirm support for hearts. Even if South bids 2♥ instead of 1♠ (confirming an 11 card fit) West can then easily overcall 2♠, and E-W can certainly compete all the way to 4♠, disrupting the N-S bidding. (4♠ E-W makes). Even pretending that West doesn't use the 2♠ overcall, North has very few means to explore for slam because the single raise of South is naturally limiting (we play Bergen Raises). 4NT after the 2♥ raise, asking for key cards, would most certainly be a stretch considering the combined high card points of N-S; and, even if North decided to ask with 4NT, he would learn to his dismay that South had literally zero key cards in his hand. With our omniscience, it is easy to see that the Queen doubleton of South allows N-S to make a slam, but there's no way South can know that such a weak suit holding is actually worthwhile. If the bidding proceeded 1♥-Pass-2♥-Pass (again assuming West doesn't overcall) North could try a splinter with 4♣, but again South has no controls to bid and must bid 4♥, leaving North with no way to see that slam is possible. (Interestingly enough, 6♦ N-S also makes, but that has to be impossible to bid, haha). Am I right in this analysis? If there is something I am missing, please do share! I hope you've enjoyed seeing this rather interesting two suited hand!