Liversidge

Under EBU regulations, are cue bids such as Michaels, UCB and Cue Bid Raises alertable? I can't find anything in EBU sources that specifically says so, but I have read somewhere in a US publication that the Unusual 2NT is alertable but its 'sister' Michaels, is not, which seems slightly odd. Maybe it's because although a cue bid is artificial it is so obviously unnatural that opponents can ask, whereas the 2NT overcall could well be natural. If the UCB is not alertable, does it need to be shown on a convention card (we are not yet playing at a level where convention cards are used but we have one anyway)

Yes. We play the Jacoby 2NT

We play Acol

In our sustem, 2♠by opener promises four spades and 5 clubs.

We only raise a major with 3 card support when responding to partner's opening bid, but not in this situation.

1♣-1♠; 2♠-3♣-P I (responding) had 13 HCP, 5 good clubs and 4 good spades. After partner's pass I realised that bidding a suit previously mentioned is non-forcing, and the maxim that 'when you have found a fit in a major, don't look for any other strain'. But here we had a 10 card fit in clubs vs a likely 8 card fit in spades and I wanted to give partner a choice of game contracts. I thought my club rebid rather than settling for a spade contract might suggest that I had 5 clubs and was offering a choice of game contracts. I suspect my thinking was muddled, but is there any situation where this sequence might be used?

Sorry, I should have been clearer. The discussion was getting silly. One player felt that 'close to the table' was vague and open to argument. He asked whether, if he was in the process of extending his arm with the card held at 45 degrees, 12" from the table (so semi-face up and close-ish) and then paused when realising he had revoked, would he be allowed to withdraw it if all the players agreed that they had nots seen it, and if there was a dispute, how could a director rule? If the card was actually 'on' the table or partly in declarer's hand there would be no argument.

An unpleasant situation arose recently when we were playing social bridge with no trained director present. Declarer had won the previous trick and was about to lead to the next trick when he realised he had revoked on the previous trick. He had selected the card he wanted to play and was holding it about 12" from his chest in a way where noone could see what the card was. He announced that he had revoked and put the card back in his hand and went to play another card. An opponent objected and said he must play his original card and the revoke was now established. There were lots of opninions expressed about exactly when a card is deemed to have been 'played'. One player said the card has to be face up and close to the table. We then discussed what 'face up' means. Does it mean when it is held such that one or both opponents can see what the card is (even if they may not actually have seen seen it)?

I can't find anything in the Laws of Bridge that cover what you can and cannot say that may possibly help partner. I think that dummy can't say anything other than " Having none, partner" but what about other situations like these: 1. LHO makes an insufficient bid. Can you draw partner's attention to the misbid just in case he misses it? 2. Partner has placed one of his spent cards the wrong way round. Can you say anything?

We play 3 weak 2s and the 2♦ response to 2♣ is a waiting bid, which might have as many as 10 HCP and no good 5 card suit. Suppose I have ♠AK ♥KQ9 ♦AKQxx ♣AQ3, 27 HCP. Partner replies 2♦ (waiting). If I rebid 2NT partner might pass with 0-1 HCP. If I bid 3NT showing 25-26 and partner has a balanced 6 HCP with something like ♠Qxx ♥Jxx ♦xxxx ♣Kxx she will pass while 6NT is a laydown with a combined 33 HCP. And my 3NT rebid prevents a weak responder from showing a second negative. How do I bid balanced hands with 25+ HCP after partner responds 2♦.

[hv=pc=n&s=s9ha42dq98762ck72&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1np]133|200[/hv] Our learning group play weak 1NT. Stayman and Transfers. This hand came up yesterday in a discussion group. Some said South should pass. Others said she should take it out to 3D (we play 2♠ relay to 3♣ and the convert to 3♦. What do you advise, and does the answer depend on vulnerability? We all agree that you should have at least 6 cards including an honour, or 7 without an honour. The discussion was about where in general the threshold of shape and strength lies between passing and takeout into a minor.

Two friends who are keen learners have asked me whether there is a way where they can play each other on line vs. a robot that can be set to play their system as it evolves. At present their system is very basic, Acol weak No trump, weak 2's, standard Blackwood, but over the next few months they will add Stayman and Transfers (red suit + 2S transfer to 3C). Does such a facility exist on BBO or on Bridge Baron, Jack etc..?

This is probably a silly question, but if you are playing in a suit contract and have ♥AK96 opposite dummy's ♥8754, then should you not count two potential losers in case LHO has ♥J10xx?

Convention cards are not used by any of the players at our local clubs. Most players don't know what you mean when you use the term 'Standard Leads' I am not sure I understand it fully myself. When I google the term, up pops a long list of acceptable leads against suits and against no trumps, e.g. "if you choose to lead from K972, lead the 2." Is there a standard 'standard lead' list that is universally agreed, so that we can, if asked, say "We play standard leads except leading AK means 'apple' and leading KA means 'pear'? Will that usually be a satisfactory answer or might we be asked what we mean by 'standard leads'?

I think (?) that in Acol a reverse at the 2 level after a 2/1 response is only forcing for one round. A reverse at the 3 level (e.g 1♠-2♦-3♣) is game forcing.

QED! :D

We play Acol & weak No Trump. My references state that to make a reverse you need 16+ points (some say 15+). Thy don't diffeentiate between a reverse after a 1-level response and a reverse after a 2 level response. After 1C-1H-2D, a weak responder (6 HCP) might have to show preference at the 3 level and if opener has a 12 point hand would take the auction too high unless opener has 16 HCP, giving the partnership a combined 22 HCP. But after 1D-2C-2H, responder has shown at least 9 HCP, so why can't opener make the reverse bid with 13 HCP, a combined 22+ HCP? Why do my references (Brunner, Klinger etc) make no differention? I presume I am missing something obvious.

Wehad this 32 HCP hand last night. We bid 4S and made 12 tricks.We still don't know how to bid it. I ran it through Jack computer software and Jack just bid game and made the slam. [hv=pc=n&s=sqj96hq9dk97caq65&n=sat54hkj865dajckj&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1hp1sp4sppp]266|200[/hv] Give South one more point and South (Jack) bid 4NT.

Sorry, I had a ♣Q. :( I have corrected the original post.

[hv=pc=n&w=saq8ha43daqjt98ck&e=sj652h65dk53caj84]266|100[/hv] On a recent post I asked how I should have responded. The general consensus was that partner should have reversed into hearts and I should not have passed with 3 card sopport and 9 HCP. We found the BBO responses very helpful. Last night (playing duplicate) we had a similar situation. The bidding went 1♥-1♠-3♥. Partner had 6 hearts and 17 HCP. I had ♠9876 ♥AJ9 ♦653 ♣Q64. With my 7 HCP and 10.5 losers I passed. We made 5♥. I ran the hand through Jack, which bid 4♥ and made 11 tricks. That surprised me. Should I have bid game? Am I still being too conservative? NB. corrected - Q♣ missed off original post.

Yes we play 12-14 with 15-17 rebid.

Is my first bid (1♠) correct?

[hv=pc=n&s=sqt853haqj96d43c5&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1dp1sp2cp2h]133|200[/hv] I had this South hand this evening. I have been taught that when 5-5 you always respond in the higher ranked suit the higher ranked suit. Here I cannot respond both suits as this would 4th suit forcing - I am too weak for that. A rebid of 2NT would show 10 - 12 points balanced and I have an unbalanced hand. The only option seems to be to bid one of my suits and then make a preference rebid of 2♦. If that's correct, why not bid the better suit first time round, here 1♥?

After my pass, partner opened 1♠. I had 4 card support and, 10 HCP and 8 losers. My RHO responded 2♣ and I bid 3♠, ignoring the overcall. Partner had 6 losers but passed, thinking that after my pass I might have a weak hand and but good support. We missed game. We had a discussion afterwards and I said that my understanding was that you just ignore the overcall provided it does not prevent you from making your bid at the intended level, except when you were planning to rebid No Trumps, in which case you now need a good stop in the overcall suit. Are there any other exceptions?

I have a partner who believes that with opening points you have to find a bid after the opponents open the bidding 1♠. I have demonstrated a hand with 15 HCP where I don't have the suit quality to bid my suit at the 2 level, and I don't have a hand suitable for a takeout double (doubleton), and I don't have a spade stop for a 1NT overcall. Can anyone give me an extreme example of a hand stronger than 15 HCP where you would pass over opps' 1♠? There must come a point where you just have to bid something.