couchbaron

Playing an IMP Robot game, white on red, I picked up Ax Ax Qxxxx AKxx. The primes and 5-card suit induced me to open 1d, with a plan to rebid 2N next. However, over partner's 1H, RHO bid 2S. 2N now was likely to be wrongsided, so I chose 3C, which the description valued at 17-22 points. Now LHO bid 3S, passed around to me. With no clear game or fit, I passed, expecting partner to be around the minimum for the 1H call. Instead, it held xx KQxx Kxx QJxx. With tame breaks 5C was cold. How can it make a non-forcing pass of 3S with a fit and proven game values? This is hand #3 from tournament #5298.

On Hand 8 from ACBL Robot Duplicate #5866, I held: AK2 53 AK43 9865. The auction went 2H on my left, around to me. I doubled, and partner left it in, but RHO ran to 3C. I hit that and led the diamond ace. Dummy was 87 KJT974 J865 K. For reference, my robot partner's hand was T9543 AQ862 9 Q7. I led the diamond ace. I could have beaten the contract 2 very quickly by continuing diamonds, but I shifted to a trump. Declarer won in dummy, played a *low* heart, covered with the 8 and ruffed, then drew trumps before playing on diamonds. I won the third round and exited with a fourth to dummy, so declarer had no play -- except my partner pitched the 10 AND 9 of spades. No bridge reason; no earthly reason. and it was the difference between +100 and -470.

Thanks everyone for chiming in and for the fix!

With Qxxx AQxx xx Qxx, GIB made a negative double after I opened 1c and RHO overcalled 1d. I jumped to 2H, described (accurately) as 3+c, 4+H, 18-22 pts, forcing to 3N. RHO rebid 3d, and GIB now freely bid 3N with 2 small diamonds and a known 8-card heart fit! With 3 small diamonds and MP scoring, I was happy to pass until I saw its hand.