msjennifer

Sir,To be frank,I shall ALWAYS PASS this rubbish hand of ,borrowed from somewhere,11 HCP with these deplorable NINE LOSERS AND ZERO WINNERS.However , in the given sequence my rebid is a straightforward 3♦

Sir,I agree with you reasoning. The modern style is to show the cheapest 1/2 round control.If this is agreed to then the 3♠bid has denied a control in ♦ suit and hence opener may not show any interest in a slam, IN my personal opinion and also experience , it is not very wise to conceal the club suit as with some other opening hand with opener holding say ♣Kx or KQx the suit will provide one or two discards in outside suits. With this in mind, there is absolutely no harm in bidding 2♣ rather than 2NT.Thanks.And just by the by,the responding hand is not worth a 4 Diamond splinter if playing weis Precision or Super Precision for that matter.In fact, playing Weis Precision I would prefer a Forcing 1NT (8-14 ) although I shall always keep the 2 Club response in mind ( if playing with an unfamiliar partner).

SRY.Duplkicate deleted

Sir, We did face similar situations,(We mean vulnerability and both LHO and then RHO bidding) .We then developed the 1NT or 2NT (on say 1S-P-2S) overcall to show 18/20HCP and a fully balanced hand like the one under consideration,with normal transfers ,Lebensohl etc.so that we could possibly circumvent.However,I do frankly admit that such a development may not be to every ones liking.North ,in this deal at least can use the transfer bid and the strong hand will be the declarer in 3H.Thanks

Sir, Lacking any predefined agreement,We shall bid FIVE DIAMONDS.

Sir, Board 4,MP Pair Sitting EAST one holds ♠1043♥A732♦AQJ10♣94 West deals and opens 1♠ 1♠2♥? What is the most descriptive bid.? 3♦ is by agreement a GF.

Sir, Board 4,MP Pair Sitting EAST one holds ♠1043♥A732♦AQJ10♣94 West deals and opens 1♠ 1♠2♥? What is the most descriptive bid.? 3♦ is by agreement a GF.

Sir, Absolutely.I too did say so.

Sir One can also IMAGINE partner leading the ♣King from Kx and boy! will the faces be red as two ♥losers are discarded.

Sir, Exactly Sir..The possession of ♥AKxx completely overrules any thought of a preemptive bid in clubs where the suit is headed only by a miserly JACK..One does not want partner to lead a club at all ,unless that is his normal NATURAL lead,if LHO buys the auction.OH, I aim sorry.Those who preempt will certainly make a LIGHTNER DOUBLE asking him to lead something((?)else but clubs.And then ,of course he will lead a heart.Or won't he !Why imagine what opponents can have as ones partner too can have a giant of a distributional hand with total misfit. Partner certainly will not expect THIS hand if a high level club preempt is made.And a very large number of advanced players do play well defined bids of 4C/.D as transfer to H/S with 012 formula as per the vulnerability(using 4H/S opening bid as per 123 formula) THANKS.

Sir. The question asked is what would you bid etc in the first seat. My answer is a firm PASS. There Are 32 HCP missing and hence I have enough time to bid appropriately on the next round. To all those who favour some sort of preempt my question is 1)Whom are you preempting by bidding clubs IN THE FIRST SEAT? 2)These days nobody bothers or gets shouted out by a preempt in clubs. 3)You may possibly miss a Grand in hearts or clubs. Those who play PRECISION will have no problem .They have the easiest 2♣ bid available. And lastly some funny adjectives may be used for those who PASS.My adjective for 4C and etc is SUICIDAL.(HARAKIRI as Japanese would call it)

Sir, very recently I held ♠QJ54♥KQJ83♦VOID♣AJ86. Partner passed RHO opened 1♠--Do you bid or pass? I passed and the bidding went 1♠Pass-3♠PASS4♠ Now what Pass or anything else?

Sir, For me it is a straightforward 2♥.I am not going too be cowed down by the vulnerability.

Sir,if ,as cyberyeti describes,a rebid of 2S is not even forcing for one round then I wonder what the 2H response is forcing upto in ACOL.,This I wish to know for my personal knowledge only.Or is the 2H response not a forcing response at all.( is a passable bid),How do they show a six card spade suit(since it appears that even it may be a 4 card suit when one opens 1S in ACOL. I was of the belief that 2H response was forcing upto 2Nt or 3H.Indeed if one can not make rebid of 2S to describe the given hand in ACOL,then no wonder the system has been abandoned almost universally.

Sirs ,I shall never double 6S bid by opponents.Since the same has been xx and comes back I shall bid 7D and if opponents bid 7S I shall not double that too.I know that it will turn out 7S will be ice cold.There is the famous deal wherein we hold 35HCP missing only the Ace and Knave of Spades and opponents score a Cold 7S. It is unfortunate that the same has been duplicated and posted with some minor changes in the distribution of the remaining three suits in this column.

Sir. I would prefer to make a simple rebid of 2S which is always a one round forcing bid.With the moderate quality of spade suit there is no justification whatsoever to support hearts with a jump immediately since it can be done on the next round.It is best in my personal opinion to show SIX carded spades worthwhile and more so if one is playing ACOL.And there is certainly a good reason for South to shoot for a slam when opener jumps to 4 HEARTS. LASTLY one wouldd consider it a poor proposition to visualise a slam with an ACE and the trump Queen missing.(leave alone even the HJ) in an 8 card fit.

Sir, I agree with you fully.In fact we playing Precision with a forcing 1NT response would always open the South hand 1H as it does possess 4 controls and a decent 5 card heart suit.

Sir, A certain Mrs.QUIXOTE (name imaginary) from US was my partner.I opened 1Spade and her RHO overcalled 2Heart.Her hand was ♠1054♥A852♦AQJ10♣Q2.My question is what should be her bid? One has to remember that your partnership is only for 2 deals and so "just a common sense bid" is what you may.

[sir, I can make only one comment here. One has to shed down the requirements of Landy or any other defensive gadget(or convention if you prefer it that way) when opponents are playing a weak NT. Failing to do this at the earliest shall rob you of any competitive contract and perhaps may result in double game swing. .We do bid aggressively(since we play a 13/15 Precision NT and so have realised long back the need to come in early if opponents play the same.)Quote an example from actual life.RHO opens 1NT and you hold ♠Q764♥AQ953♦VOID♣10652. ONLY 8 HCP as some" pointers" would say.Most would pass I presume.My partner overcalled 2C((LANDY).After some enquiries ,(I felt passing UI)),LHO passed.The bidding continued 1NT-2♣-P-P-2♦-3♣-4♠-5♣-P-P-DBL(Rocking the roof away).RESULT --5♣doubled made with one overtrickThe only double dummy loser was a spade.I had ""only 9 points." In the other room our opponents kept silent throughout and the result- 3NT scored by our pair when a normal heart lead was made.A club lead would result in the defence taking first 8 tricks for minus four.

Sir, there are some facts to be considered. 1)Responder does not know how many spades opener holds.4H can easily go down right away with the defence collecting SAK and a spade ruff if opener has three cards in spades.or may be a trump promotion if he has xx in spades. 2)Nothing is known about the quality of the openers heart suit. 3)The QJxx of spades will be useful better in a NT contract.It is worthwhile to consider these 3HCP as zero,. 3HCP as SK would serve better in a heart contract. 4)The less said about the number of losers in a third seat opening the better. 5)It is well nigh difficult to EXACTLY convey this hand to partner.Although we do play 2C as reverse Drury in this exact auction (with interference at 1 level) this hand is unfit for the same with the very doubtful value of SQJ in a suit contract.Had it been SKxxx we would certainly bid 2C as reverse DRURY. 6) The number of losers in spade suit must be taken as 3 with the impending ruff. 7)Just (taking into consideration the spade overcall) take away the SQJ and consider your response(in light of the spade overcall) Is it not just 2heart ?Had the RHO passed then most certainly the LTC has to be given consideration.But then who knows a NT contract may play better with some other holding with opener. 8)In light of all that I have quoted above I feel that the present armoury is just not capable of doing justice.We are a bit aggressive bidders and shall use 2C response unmindful of the consequences. THANKS for posting a very interesting problem.

duplicate deleted

Sir, I shall open it 4 CLUB..I need not elaborate on it.

Sir, Since the question asked is what does one bid over 1D by RHO the easiest answer is 1S.

Sir, Our bid is based upon the LTC when we find a eight card fit and with the short hand getting tapped in the 3 card support., Our bid here is Double indicating a hand with 3 card support ,7 losers and which would have responded 2S had RHO passed or bid 2H.Responder who also plays LTC gets the full information to decide his line of action thereafter.

Sir, My answers are ae under, Hand 1) A straightforward 1Spade. There are two reasons for this.(1)Partner HAS AS YET NOT DENIED a four card spade suit.My bid of one spade DOES NOT show an unbalanced hand at all when the bid is made at THE LEVEL OF ONE.That it does is stretching the imagination too far.2)I certainly do not wish to see a spade opening lead going through responders Ax of Spade when One blindly bids 1NT. Hand 2)Nothing easier than a natural ONE HEART rebid on this hand.It does not deny a four card spade suit at all. Thanks. PS.Sorry but I beg to differ with those who try to impress that 1S shows an unbalanced hand.We can not afford to suppress a 4 Card suit at the level of one.It just does not fit in the modern age CONSTRUCTIVE APPROACH bidding at all.And lastly to recall I DO NOT KNOW HOW TO BID PROGRESSIVELY IN A FOUR CARD MAJOR SYSTEM.