GBinUS

I agree with your theory. The problem is that when I bid this way, my ox opposite bids 3NT and I have reduced my RHO's possible wrong leads by 33%! So if I bid 1♠ -1NT-3NT, I'm slightly disgusted by my bidding, but I have allowed the opponents to lead from three suits rather than two. Leaving my opponents an extra wrong option looks OK.

3♠ I want partner to bid 3NT.

4♥ all day. I will only get into real trouble when one opponent has Q10xx or more. Partner will not raise 3♥ with: ♠ Kx ♥ xx ♦J10xxx ♣AKxx and on a good day I make 6♥!!

The problem is that you opened those 11-14 hands 1NT. So to rebid 2NT here suggests more. Of course, it is my contention that after an overcall, partner's response in a higher ranking suit than my opening bid is near GF, and so I have no problem bidding 2NT because that would be the weakest bid I can make. (But then I play much more 2/1 than Acol these days). I prefer 2NT here because I cannot bring myself to bid 3♥ with that lousy suit, nor can I stand p passing me out in 3♥ with a small singleton. I'm not sure where my tricks are coming from, but I do know that I'm unlikely to be doubled in 2NT but I might get axed for 500 in 3♥. Who opened this heap of crap anyway? :lol: :o

Bidding 1♠ on the first round would show 5+ cards. Neg X shows the 4 card ♠ suit we have, and bidding ♠ when p did not is nuts. I'll be happy with another double here, which shows decent values, no clear cut bid, and if p looks at his hand he can be pretty sure I'm not doing this on a trump stack. 5♦ could make or go for a number, 4♠ may be right, and partner is in the best place to decide. Double has the added advantage that if partner does the wrong thing, you can blame him for not understanding the second double.

General rule: at this vulnerability, take the likely game, 620 vs maybe 500, maybe more. At equal or favorable vul., I will defend and go for the big number. BTW.. I am bidding 4S or pass. 3S is NOT an option.

I pass. This hand will never be passed out, and I want to be doubled in 6♦. If p opens, I may have to force him to cue his controls, but it's more likely that an opponent will leap in one of the majors. Go ahead. I want to look like a lunatic here.

Did I miss it or did you 'forget' to bid 4♣ after the 3♣ call instead of the ridiculous 3 ♥? After partner is known to have a game going hand and a 6 card club suit missing AQJ, with all my controls, surely the club slam has play, and maybe the grand. So set the suit and let's go! Now shooting 7 risks having a losing red card somewhere, so I'm going to settle for 6 and clubs is safer than NT.

The basis of a takeout double - when I make one - is: a) I have opening values, b)I have at least 3 card support for all other suits (and therefore I am usually short in opponents' suit) or c) I have a hand too good for a simple overcall which I will clarify later. Therefore it is my partner's duty to bid a suit if he has one. Let's go through the possible responses here: North has 10HCP in a 4333. 2♣ is 0-8 w/clubs denying a 4 card major. 1NT shows 6-9 or 10 with a good stopper. 3♣ shows 8+ with at least 4 clubs BUT NO 4 CARD MAJOR. What does he hold? 10HCP, 4 clubs and no 4 card major OR diamond stopper. 1NT was simply wrong. 3NT was normal if a bit pushy, given that my partner has promised a decent diamond stopper and denied a 4 card major.