shnk

IMPS white-white [hv=pc=n&s=st3hk92dqj6caj954&n=s7haq763dat9842c2&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1hp1n2sd4s]266|200[/hv] System is 2/1 with 100% forcing 1NT. I'm interested in every bid here: North's opening? We generally do not play very light openings. South's forcing 1NT intending on making a 3-card limit raise? (I think standard given system) North's double intending to convert a club bid to diamonds? (No idea about this. It seemed better than passing.) EW are known to preempt agressively. Should south continue? After a pass or double from south, should north act?

[hv=pc=n&s=sqt87hqt87dk643ca&n=saj942h963djckq7]133|200[/hv] After an unrevealing auction, you are declaring 4♠ as North. East leads the ♣T. The spade king is with east. Partner was a random pick-up and mentioned there was a squeeze here. If so, how do i spot it?

OK, I learned a few things When I first read about Ingberman, I understood it that opener's refusal to bid 3♣ after the 2NT weakness bid was game forcing. This is clearly not the case for all of you that responded. I reread mikeh's primer on reverses. It seems that he espouses that not even 3♥ in this specific spot is forcing. I think if I ever get in this spot again, I will bid 4♥. There are only a few minimums where slam is in the picture and I'm not sure going more slowly with 3♥ helps us get there. Still it makes me uncomfortable to use up all that space and jump to 4 on a 5 card suit when partner could have nothing in the way of support. Hopefully p can bid 5♦ if that is the case. I didn't even consider opening 2♣ with this hand.

[hv=pc=n&n=skhakq54dakjt42c2&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1dp1sp2hp2np]133|200[/hv] IMPs, white vs white We play lebensohl after reverses, so partner's 2NT is a relay to 3♣ and shows a desire to stop below game. We haven't discussed this much; I think this is only the 2nd time it has come up. If I break the relay here, does it show a hand that can't stomach playing 3♣ or does it show a game force? If it's the former, how do I force game here (if indeed that's what I want)?

[hv=pc=n&n=skjt2h7daj65cakqj&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1dp2dp]133|200[/hv] We do not play inverted minors. 2♦ shows 5+ diamonds and 6-9 HCP and denies a 4+ card major. What are my options here?

I opened 1S with a balanced 18 HCP. GIB responds 1NT and I raise to 2NT. GIB bids 3D explained as a transfer to hearts which I completed and GIB passed out with a 6 HCP hand with 5 hearts. Cool. I like transfers. So is 3C a transfer to diamonds? And is 3H a transfer back to spades? If so then what is the difference between the transfer to spades and the direct spade bid? Its an interesting treatment that I haven't seen in this exact spot.

I decided to open 1NT with ♠Qxx ♥AKx ♦AJxxx ♣Kx (I don't remember the pips) 1NT - (P) - 2♣ - (X) - ? Partner is an advanced player with whom I have had the privilege of playing with a few times recently. I seem to remember reading somewhere that a pass here shows a club stop and redouble denies. And if I pass redouble by responder re-asks or something. Does that sound about right? What are your meanings for pass, 2D and XX? Should they be alerted?

[hv=pc=n&s=sa832hj76dkq3ckt8&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1cp1hp]133|200[/hv] 1♠ or 1NT?

[hv=pc=n&s=sakjhakqt4dt9cq62&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1cp1hp1np2dp2hp]133|200[/hv] 2♦ is new minor forcing. 2♥ shows 3 hearts and a minimum (11-12 hcp) Does the above look ok? How to proceed from here? More generally, what should responder's bidding structure look like from here?

This is Jacoby: 4+ hearts and game forcing 1♥ - (P) - 2NT This is Jordan/Truscott: 4+ hearts and invitational or better 1♥ - (X) - 2NT! This shows invitational or better values with 3 hearts? 3+ hearts? 4+ hearts? 1♥ - (1♠) - 2♠ How am I doing so far? How do you like to play this 2NT bid? If conventional, does it have a name and how to show a balanced 11ish points with spades stopped and no heart support? 1♥ - (1♠) - 2NT

I decided to ask this question in a very general way because partner and I weren't sure about a couple things, namely the strength of a 2/1 after a double and how to handle a 3-card limit raise type hand. mikeh addressed the former question quite well. Thank you. I am aware that some play a transfer system here and I see the utility but I'm not interested in that in this partnership. We are playing that Jordan/Truscott promises 4 card support for a major. Also any jump is preemptive including the raise to 3H? So to show a limit type raise with 3 card support, we are redoubling first, and I have been convinced that that is less than ideal. Do you include 3 card raises in the 2NT response?

1♥ - (Dbl) - ? What should 1S be here in terms of spade length/strength? Is it forcing? How about 2C/2D? Should we always start with a redouble with strength? What should redouble then new suit mean?

A) (Auction 1) AQxx/xx/xxxx/Jxx, do I have enough stuff to bid a forcing 1S? If not how much more stuff do I need? B) (Auction 2) xxx/AKxx/KQxx/xx, my bid?

1) (1♦) - 1♥ - (P) - ? The overcall shows 9-17 always with a 5+ card suit. What is 1S here in terms of spade length and strength? Is it forcing? Does it deny heart support? If 2D is a heart raise here, what kind of strength does it show? How about 2C? 2) (1♠) - 2♣ - (P) - ? What is 2H here in terms of heart length and strength? What is 2S here?

How about 3S instead of 4NT? I generally play 2/1 but surely this bid is forcing in SAYC? Then you've established a double fit with room for control showing and there are 6 keycards for RKCB. I play that directly supporting responder's minor after a 2/1 shows more than minimum -- a sound 14+ points or so, so I'd just rebid spades as opener but I guess that promises six spades in many methods.