Pigge63

Thank you for taking your time - much appreciated. I would prefer 2d as a second bid to be natural, both in relation to limited and unlimited partner. So we end up bidding 2cl will all balanced hands above our weak/mini NT range. Think one can sort things out - say 1M-1NT-2cl*-2d* (8+)-2NT (14-16 bal)-2 we still have 22hcp in the worst case.... (BTW Will not consider putting each bal hand in 1cl :-))

Thinking about taking up the variable NT from this system, with two variations - 11-13 (1st, 2nd NV) and 14-16 (the rest)to simplify a bit. (Otherwise: open 11 counts, 5cM, 1cl=cl or bal with no transfers, unbal d) How does this system deal with bal 14-16 1st/2nd NV after for instance 1M-1NT? Does 2cl (Gazilli) include 14-16 bal? Cannot find it on their system card. Seems a Little awkward to me but may be the price you have to pay for the 11-13 NT. Any other thoughts on the basic idea or this specific sequence? Thanks for your time and attention.

Thanks for your structure after 2NT. We have made is simple and just play our regular Jacoby answers - 3cl min (3d can ask "is it really that bad", 3M says "yes), 3 bid M is GF without singelton and other bids are gf with singelton. Will consider changing to your structure eventually.

Thanks for your comment! I agree with you on points 1 and 3 – pass a reverse if possible and transfer to major and pass with a weak hand opposite a 1NT-bid - but remain undecided on no 2. Certainly 2cl after 1cl-1d!-1sp would be the natural bid with the hand you gave. But: we have been allowed to bid undisturbed which is a strong indication that partner is strong. If we bid 1NT with our 8 count 2524 (with the agreement that it does not promise an even hand nor the unbid suit) the risk that we will be left in 1NT and down a few seems remote. We have plenty of space to investigate possible games and weather we have diamonds covered. At least at IMPs (my preferred dish) the difference between 2cl and 1NT is furthermore not that big. At matchpoints improving the contract to 2cl and pray that partner does not jump to 3NT with for instance 20 hcp and KQx in diamonds seems more justified. I also consider the idea to do the same after openers reverse when pass is not an option. 2NT would mean any weak hand (we do not play Lebensol) and 3cl shows a subminimal hand with some kind of club-support. It would certainly be simple and analogous with how we deal with things a level lower. Can it be the lesser evil? If a transfer to a major on the one level promises 4hcp and a 5-card suit problems are less and you may (at IMPs at least) go along with partners forcing bids – sometimes the game makes so no problem. If you allow for instance 2-counts it becomes more difficult. Need to think more about this.

We have decided not to add more articifical bids as we just got started. We use 2NT as simply 4-card support and strong (after 1d-1M as well which is really neat) but may add more to that later. The handtypes are not common but important when searching for slam. Do you have system-notes I will kindly receive them at hasselgren.johan@gmail.com. Or if you can post continuations after 2NT here. Do you include bids that show a sub-minimum hand - 3h instead of relay 3cl? :)

Thanks! How do you force to game with a singlesuiter?

Thanks all for your thoughts. So no specific system change or planning on what kind of hand needed to respond with a sub-minimum hand then? What is your minimum by the way for responsing - 0 hcp? One suggestion is to play 1cl-1d-1sp-2cl as subminimum without 3sp, where partner with "just" a minimum will bid 1NT. After reverse it is more difficult to do the same with a 3cl response.

I have recently started to play 5542 with transfer responses to 1cl with my regular partner and need your advice. One of the great benefits of transfers is that we can respond with a 5c M and a very weak hand (We play 3+hcp but others accept less). We will pass after partners accept/support or 1NT (17-19 bal.). Problems occur when opener is strong and unbalanced (and opp are less likely to bid): 1. Opener bids reverse. Partner can pass with 3+card support which is ugly. The alternative is to play Lebensol 2NT to sign off in 3cl. This means that we need at least 3cl as responder (and pray that opener does not have a strong Marmic hand so we have will play on the 3-level with a 7 card suit). Furthermore - how will partner with a 20 count know if I have 6 or 3 hcp after 2NT? 2. After 1cl-1d (transfer to hearts)-1sp-?. Yesterday I had a 4135 20-count and partner was at loss after my 1sp rebid. She passed with 3 hcp, 5h and 3sp, which certainly was ok. (Then opp. balanced and I jumped to 3NT for -3, fairly stupid) If she had bid 1NT (only option with less than 3sp) how will I know if she has 3 or 6hcp? What is your advice on these two situations and your general take on answering with a weak hand? Are these inevitable problems that are compensated by all the other “good stuff” :) ?