briannz556

Hi My partner and I play 2/1 with 1♦, 1♥, 1♠ being transfers to a 1♣ opening. The idea came from My question revolves around more modern ways of responding to a 1♦ opening in 2/1. Q: Is there any modern way of using transfers over a 1♦ opening in 2/1 or even over 1♦ - 2♣? I hope that makes sense. I'd appreciate any expert opinion.

Hi Folks I appreciate your feedback and it made me go back to our understandings. We do play XYZ and that slipped my mind at the time. However, we need to amplify our understandings as a Jump rebid doesn't show a solid suit which would have simplified the hand development. I will take on board all the comments and act accordingly. Thanks for taking the time to help me. Cheers Brian

Hi [hv=pc=n&w=sa843ht2dakj643cq&e=sk7hakqj6543dct93]266|100[/hv] with West the dealer and all vulnerable. This hand occurred the other afternoon and I need help bidding it to 6♥ if at all possible. I've consulted all my books on 2/1 and find the bidding starts 1♦ - 1♥ as far as I can tell. I had the East hand and started this way and stopped in 4♥.I just can't think of a way to detect the singleton♣ in West's hand below the 5 level. I'd appreciate any suggestions. Brian

Thanks for that wonderful advise. I'll amend our agreements to fit in with the suggestions. I like the 2N-3S-3N-4C-4D Ace ask and subsequent developments. Appreciate the responses. Cheers Brian

[hv=pc=n&s=sjthk72d6ckqj9764&n=saq53haq83dat5ca8]133|200[/hv] North opens 2N. My question is what is the best way to get to slam 6N / 6♣. We play transfers & control bidding. I've toyed with: 2N - 3♠ - 4♣ - 4♦ - 4♥ but then feel I should just bid 5♣ and let North make the decision. But it doesn't grab me as being ideal. Much appreciate some expert advice. Brian

Thanks for all the responses. Yes, I goofed with the 1H opening. I was playing with a person who I’d just met so had little understanding of conventions we could use. If it was my regular P, it would have been 2N- 3S ( T to N) - 3N - 4C ( single suited slam interest in C ) - 4H - 4S - 5C - 6C. This is something we have in our understanding but never came up in the past. Appreciate your replies. Thanks Brian

Hi [hv=pc=n&s=sak3hakqj4dt52ca2&n=s2ht9dkj8ckqjt963]133|200[/hv] As South, I opened 1♥ as I had 5 losers. Bidding began: 1♥ (1♠) 2♣ 2♠ ... and I didn’t know how to get to a slam. What is a good way to bid one of the 3 slams available - ideally with N as declarer? My thoughts are that N is the one in the best position to be Captain of this hand.

Thanks for the feedback. I feel more comfortable about the whole proceeding now.

Hi Thanks for the response. Agree with your view of 2NT. As to a 2♠ MQB, it is supposed to show the other major and a minor so ruled that out. It would have been nice if I'd got that 1N reply from my P but I got a 2♦ response instead. I felt that a minor game was on but that would depend on what my P had in ♣ so I bid 3♣ thinking this was a new suit at the 3 level and would be forcing [ for one round at least ]. Sadly, I was left in it and made 5♣. Was I right to assume 3♣ was a forcing bid?

Hi I handled this hand poorly at the table last night and wondered if someone could help me with a sensible bidding sequence to a minor suit game? [hv=pc=n&w=skq8h432d7652ckj2&e=shak7dkqj3cq98763]266|100[/hv] South Opened 1S which was followed by 2 passes. My choices seemed to be 2♠, X or U2NT. I chose X and partially regretted it. Thoughts appreciated.

Thanks for that response. I've Googled it and it seems to fit the bill rather well. Just need partner's opinion for adoption.

I'm practicing my 2/1 and came across this hand with West as dealer: [hv=pc=n&w=sakqj4hadkt97c432&e=s2h5daqj864caqjt8]266|100[/hv] My thoughts went: 1♠ - 2♦ [GF] 3♦ - 3♥ [CB] 3♠ - 4N [0-3 RKC] 5♣ when I wondered how I can ask for a side-suit K. In this case, K♣. Any advice would be appreciated. Brian

That sounds about right to my way of thinking. As it turned out 6H goes down on a D lead but 6D makes.

Hi I was sitting West with this hand yesterday West which caused me issues: [hv=pc=n&s=shdc&w=shaq6dkq9652caq74&n=shdc&e=skqjthkjt742dt87c]399|300[/hv] My Partner and I are playing 2/1 Marty Bergen style bidding [ as best we can ] and we managed to get to 6D with various Control Bids. Can I seek expert opinion on a sensible approach to bidding a slam in either H or D. To get the ball rolling, I opened 1D and partner responded 1H. Jumping to 3C seemed to me to be the best way to force P to bid and at the same time describe my hand. Any help would be appreciated.

Much appreciate the helpful advice. Obviously I need to discuss the meaning of a jump shift with my partner. Thanks.

Hi I'm new to 2/1 and had this hand at the table last night with East the Dealer: [hv=pc=n&w=sa54hqtdq87caq842&e=skqj7hak9876dtck5]266|100[/hv] In passing, we have Flannery in our arsenal which might affect suggestions. Our bidding started: 1H - 2C - but went stray after that. In hindsight I was thinking 1H - 2C - 3S might imply a 6-4 distribution in the majors for East with 1H - 2C - 3S - 4H - 4NT etc being a possible pathway but would appreciate some offers of help. My question, how do we get to a slam in H please?

As a fellow Kiwi, I’ll abide by your suggestion. Can’t find one bid that does all I need but that I’m not too surprised or worried about. 3D does the hcp and 3-card support but like you I worry about hiding the C suit if I choose that option. 2C is GF and leaves lots of room for swapping information which could become important. Thanks

Hi First time use of the Forum so apology if I err. Also, new to 2/1. I’m a little bit lost for thoughts on dealing with 3-card support for partner with a possible splinter hand. Partner opens 1S and I have xxx Axx x AKxxxx My options seem to be 3D ( Modified Reverse Bergen -10-12 & 3 card support ), 2C or 3H (Ambiguous Splinter - but lacks 4 cards I should have for this). With 5 controls and a fit I smell game and would like to convey splinter shape somehow. What would people bid and why? Thanks Brian