yunling

[hv=pc=n&s=skqj7h9d765caqj82&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1d(11-13%20bal%20or%2011-15%20no%205M%2F6m)1sdr(strength)2cp2dp]133|200[/hv] Maybe I should have passed over the redouble but I think it usually implies a balanced hand So what should 2C show here and what about should I do now?

Just play completing transfer as "Gazzilli" showing 16+ w/o fit with other rebid showing natural 11-15 e.g. 1C-1H-? 1S=16+ no 4S 1N=minimum NT range 2C=11-15 (5)6+C 2D=about 14-16, 3-4S 2H=11-15 6+C-5+H 2S=11-14 3-4S 2NT= 16+ 4+S 3C=13-15 (6)7+C now 1S is passable for light response I lose the chance to distinguish 3 card raise from 4 but can show the range immediately so it's ok.

You are losing too much space via 2N. A common gadget is to play cheapest step as asking and swap it with 2NT (so 2NT shows hearts here). But traditional precision 2D response is way too high anyway.

A few systems use 1S-2D as hearts so 1S-2H includes GF 5+D (some will put other hand types in it which make it more difficult to continue). e.g. Ambra uses a fairly "normal" follow up so 2S is minimum, 2N/3x is natural and max but opener can't show 5-5/6-4 majors below 3NT, which is losing a lot of major information compared to traditional systems. Anyone has a good continuation of this auction?

The question is to open 2NT with 20-21 balanced hands, or put them into precision 1C. I was in the 1C camp before because it 1)allows to stay low opposite junk 2)save space for slam bidding But after examining some hands my idea has changed, 2NT looks to have a slight edge, at least under traditional 1C response structure. 1)2NT prevents opponents from lead directive overcalls,so you will make a lot more 3NTs due to inferior leads. 2)Slam biddings surprisingly break even because these hands is not easy to bid after overcalls. These arguments also works for Mexican 2m opening, which (as I know) is becoming more popular these days. Any ideas?

Something like 16.5 in my own evaluation method, so I feel comfortable to open 1NT. 5332=+0.5 Axx=4.5 KQJTx=5.25 AQ=5.75 Jxx=0.5

Playing something like "Standard Modern Precision" in which 1NT is 14-16, 2♣ opening is 6+ and 2♦ opening is 4415 minus a card, do you play these auction as showing minors or only clubs? 1. 1♦-(2♥)-X-(pass) 3♣ 2. 1♦-(Pass)-1♥-(1♠) Pass-(Pass)-X-(Pass) 2♣ 3. 1♦-(1♠)-X-(2♠) Pass-(Pass)-X-(Pass) 3♣ 4. 1♦-(1♠)-2♥*-(2♠) Pass-(Pass)-X-(Pass) 3♣ *: 2♥ is forcing

I play a (maybe)non-mainstream style but I think the method is sound: 1. 4♥needs fewer cards than 4♠. Good suit and 7321 pattern is ok for a NV 1st seat 4♥, but at 2nd seat or open 4♠ is much more serious. 2nd seat 4♠ almost promises 8 card. Often open 4M on 7-4 and 6-5 patterns. 2.Side A or K are both ok. Concentrate on offensive potential thus side cards are properly evaluated. 3.Yes, it is common for 4♥, especially vulnerable, but pretty rare for 4♠. I don't like open 4♥ on trash. This is a good occasion for namyats. 4.Can't think of any more.

If you play standard count then the ♠ ruff is quite obvious. With KQ8 in dummy a club return is hopeless anyway.

Not really. East held ♦93 and he played the 9. After west wins the trick with ♦K, returning ♦ will allow ♦8 to win a trick which happened at a number of tables.

X 同伴pass就发财了，2♥/2♠你就放打，其他就改3NT

A small club. North probably has a good ♦ suit and we have one stopper, and we must take our black winners before ♦ run. ♣ is safer than ♠.

Majors are more important than ♦ so I agree with awm's method, no need to show ♦ at 2 level. People play transfers over natural 1♣ for the same reason. However if the overcall is 2♦ then NFB makes sense.

East has two aces more than west's expectation and it is almost a slam force knowing partner holding nothing in ♠.

No "weak" jump here but I believe 2♠ should still be the low end of your overcall, say 9-12. I'll bid 1♠ then 2♠ to show a maximum overcall with 6♠ but still not reaching 4♠ without some competition from opponents.