mck4711

I trust partner. He should have a huge hand. The only question is how to continue. I have already showed values in ♠, but K♣/ A♦ - IMO - are of more importance to p. I would skip 4♠, but CB on level 5: 5♣ or 5♦, depending on agreement (1st-round, mixed). P is short in ♠, meaning there is no risk that opps can take 2 quick-tricks in ♠.

Edit: Post deleted. Ahem, yes, I mixed here something totally up (thx for ur hint flameous). Obviously not a good idea to write something before having a wake-up-coffee...

A direct 4NT bid would have been Blackwood. I would interpret this delayed 4NT-bid as Unusual, ie. showing both minors.

X and then ♠. I am too strong for a direct overcall.

IMO this hand is too strong for a direct 4♠. In case you play in this sequence 4♦ as "fit-jump" - promising 4+ ♠, good ♦-suit and high offense-defense-ratio - then this would be my choice. Lacking this I would go for 4♥: slam interest, either with a strong hand or with ♠-support.

Thank you for your opinions. One more Q: you have (this is actually p's hand) ♠ AT87 ♥ QJ8 ♦ xx ♣ Kxxx what is your bid after the sequence (RHO starts): p - p - 3♠ - X p - ??

Bid of 1♥ just perfect. And also P after 2♠. Lets think what p would like to tell you (if it is not a bold overbid): First he showed with 2 ♥ a min-opening and 4-card support (with 3 he would/ could/ should have X). Now he pops up with 2NT?! To play 2NT after fit-confirmation in ♥ doesnt make sense. IMO there is one thing he might have had on his mind: If he has something like 4432 or 3442 or 4441 and a max within the context of his min-hand, he wants to compete (at least) on level 3 (and is maybe hoping for more if you have a perfectly matching hand). But this thought still doesnt work for 2 reasons: - In case you would have had more than minimum you would have acted differently after 2♠ - If he has any length in ♠ you are short in ♠, thats clear. If he has HCP in ♠ they are anyhow wasted. If he has nothing in ♠ why to tell the obvious. It just helps opps in case we are to defend against a ♠-contract. Edit (I forgot the last sentence): 2NT therefore doesnt make sense at all. He described his minimum-opening with 2H. And thats it. Full stop.

club tournament, first time partner, IMP, white RHO as third set opens with a preempt: ♠ - ♥ A9xxx ♦ KQ9x ♣ AJT8 p - p - 3♠ - X XX - p - p - ??? Hm, and now??? There are several options... What is your reasoning?

club tournament, first time partner, 5-major, IMP, none I am dealer and opening light, no interference of opps: ♠ AJx ♥ xxx ♦ KQJxxx ♣ T 1♦ - 1♥ 2♦ - 3♣ 3♥ - 3♠ ??? What now? What does 3♠ mean to you? What kind of hand do you give p?

penalty. 4+ cards in ♠ and 6+ HCP

Hand calls for creativity. There are several options: 3♣: IMO hand is too strong for 3♣ - though you may want to overlook ur stiff Q♦. 4♦: Only 3card-support, but very good ones. 2NT: stiff Q is disturbing 2♠: Only 3cards This hand is like "democracy": It is a bad political system, but the best out of the bad ones. I prefer 2♠.

I assume that shown bidding is our sequence, without interference of opps. IMO 3♦ is a gross underbid. After p has shown a weak opening and no fit, repeating your own suit shows 6+cards and is not forcing. Your p may pass. I think a better answer is 3♣ - FSF, and in this sequence GF. It gives p the opportunity to describe his hand once more: 3♦: 3card-support in ♦, meaning he has something like 5431 3♥: likely 5-5 in ♠ and ♥ and no ♦-support 3♠: no stopper in ♣, no ♦-support 3NT: stopper in ♣ Depending on his answer you can continue accordingly. Maybe your best spot is 3NT, maybe 6♦, maybe even a 5-2 fit in ♠ or ♥. EDIT: Just realized that it is mentioned 2 over 1 GF. In this case a prefer a simple 3NT. NT is played from right side and if p has nothing in ♣ I have good chances to take my tricks before opps can do.

I want to play at least play 4♠, and unless he has a super-light opening or all his HCP are in ♥ slam has good chances. IMO you have 3 choices: 2NT or 3NT: showing 4card-support, GF, you are taking the lead, checking about strength and distribution (in some systems 2NT is 2NT-Jacoby, in other systems 3NT has this meaning) 4♥: splinter (your hand is strong enough for a splinter), you are describing your hand and p can judge if slam is possible I dont like 3♣. Though it shows a strong hand with ♣, IMO 3♣ declines support for ♠. How do you want to tell p that you have perfect support for ♠ and that you are short in ♥. Edit: Some systems require that this jump (1♠ - 3♣) shows not more than one looser in ♣, with KJ I have 1,5. My personal choice on this hand: 4♥. Everything told in one bid.

non-vulnerable, IMP, SAYC, LHO dealer ♠ - ♥ KJ8 ♦ KJTx ♣ KQxxxx 1♠ - p - p - ? Question 1: What is your choice? Imagine you bid 2♣ and the bidding continues: 2♠ - p - p - ? Question 2a: What now? Question 2b: Do you treat X in this sequence as take/out (showing something like -346, otherwise first round X with eg -445) or penalty?

3♦ so-called fit-jump: Shows 4+trump-support and a good suit on its own. According to the author (Robson/ Segal: Partnership Bidding at Bridge, 1993) distribution is more important than strength, based on LOTT. The author calls it "the two way shot". Important term within this theory is ODR (offense defense ratio): The higher your offense strength in relation to your defense the more (higher/ more aggressive) you can (shall?) bid. 4♦ shows a hand with even more distributional features/ higher ODR. Bids basically remain the same if RHO bids something, eg. raise; but minor adoptions. You can download this book free from the internet as PDF. As a good complement I recommend Lawrence: Complete book on overcalls.

Do you recommend: 1) bidding you major first, or 2) your longer minor suit first, so 1♦, or 3) does it depend on suit quality/something else, etc! ad 1/2: there are actually 2 "schools of thought": the "standard"-approach - regardless of your strength - is to start with your longer ♦, even with 4 cards in ♦ you would bid them normally up the line, meaning first ♦. nevertheless bidding has become more aggressive; facing this development it is IMO quite common today to bid your 4-card-major first - if you have a weak hand. if you are strong enough, at least invitational strength, then you want to explore the best possible contract (partscore, game, slam, which suit). it can happen that sometimes you miss a good ♦-contract, yes, but the world isnt perfect, is it? as reference: in modern textbooks both versions are mentioned, SAYC: standard-approach, but it is mentioned that is quite common to bid with weak hands 4-card-major first; Europe, eg ForumD: 4-card-major first with weak hands ad 3: i personally would bid with weak hands 1♦ first if i have an excellent suit, meaning there is a huge disparity between the suits, eg: xxxx - x - AKJxx - xxx that much regarding the theory, at the end of the day it depends on the system you agreed on with your partner.

Bidding 4-card-major has priority if you have less than invitational strength, even if ♦ is longer. I would bid ♦ only if the suit has an excellent quality. In both examples I answer with 1♠, respectively 1♥. Imagine what happens if the bidding goes: 1♣ - p - 1♦ - 1M p - 2M - ??? You are stuck. For bidding your major on the 2-level you are just too weak.

Here it is trick by trick: Trick 1: ♥7, low, low, T Trick 2: ♣Q, low from dummy, one opp wins Now a: Trick 3: ♣return, winning in hand (♣2-2) Trick 4: ♠A Trick 5: ♠ ruff Trick 6: ♦ ruff Trick 7/8: drawing ♥ and claim Now b: Trick 3: ♦return (♣A singleton), winning with A, pitching ♠ Trick 4: see above Now c: Trick 3: ♠return (♣A singleton), winning with A Trick 4: ♠ ruff Trick 5: ♦ ruff Trick 6/7: drawing ♥ and claim Now d: Trick 3: ♥ return, winning in hand with A Trick 4: see above If ♥Q singleton: Trick 1: ♥7, low, ♥Q, ♥A Trick 2: ♣ Trick 3: ♣ return Trick 4: ♠A Trick 5: ♠ ruff Trick 6: ♥J Trick 7: ♦ ruff Trick 8/9: drawing ♥ and claim If W should win ♣ and return ♥ Trick 3: ♥, J, doesnt matter, low Trick 4: ♠ to the A Trick 5: ♠ ruff Trick 6: ♦ ruff Trick 7/8: drawing ♥ and claim Important: Only small ♥ from dummy at trick1 protects against 4-1 with Q singleton. If you play the J then W has 98x behing ATxx is making one trick.

OK, this is my first problem, it might be that I took some shortcuts and that there is some space for improvement... From the very start we have two ways of playing for the 12th trick, the finesse or ruffing. IMO the finesse has a simple 50% chance. Yes, it might be that E does X only with KJxx in ♠, we dont know. But in case we want to finesse we come to a PRACTICAL problem. We need to enter the dummy, either via ♥J or ♣K. Playing ♥J is IMO dangerous because playing low protects us against ♥Q singleton with E (mentioned earlier). Meaning we play from dummy at trick 1. 2nd option is then ♣K. But as already explained earlier playing ♣ before ♥ requires that ♣ either split 2-2 or ♣A is singleton. But in this case then we DO NOT NEED anymore the finesse. So, why to take an - now unnecessary - risk? Therefore the line of play is clearly via ruffing ♠. Even from a mathematical point of view this line of play is supported: Finesse: 50%, you may argue that the probability is higher, that E needs to have ♠K, and we can for sure finesse (in this case look at the practical problem) Ruffing: around 58%: 40% (2-2) + 12.5% (♣A singleton) + 5.6% (4-1 ♥distribution with Q singleton, 28% 4-1).

For this you need ♣ 2-2 or ♣A singleton. But if you have this you dont need the finesse any more... Playing ♥J at trick one has one additional risk: If W has 4th ♥Q, nothing you can do; if E has 4th ♥Q, nothing you can you; but there is one 4-1 distribution you can protect against: E has ♥Q singleton. In this case you can still win if you play low from dummy. All you need is the ♣-distribution mentioned earlier.

How do you get to the table? The only entry for doing the finesse would be ♥J. Maybe I should have written in this way: I have the choice of doing the finesse, or playing for ♣2-2 or ♣A single. My only entry for doing the finesse is ♥J. If it holds I can still choose what is the better play. In case E should cover I have to rely on the ♣-holding. :)

The finesse is 50%. If you have 9 cards, the remaining 4 cards split in 40% 2-2, in 50% they are 3-1. Meaning each 4th time A is single, =12.5%. This sums up to >50%, +additional chance - if ♣ are played early - that opps dont return ♣. E can hold ♠Jxxx ♥xxx ♦KJxx ♣Ax. Not strong enough? Give him on top ♥Q. Not at all guaranteed that ♠K is with E.

Ok, here we go. I hope it doesnt look too messy, but I think that the pictures are good for a better understanding. Contract: 6♥, W is leading ♥. [hv=pc=n&s=saqt5hakt65dcqjt9&w=shdc&n=s4hj42daqt9ck8742&e=shdc]399|300[/hv] First we need to realize that trumps have to split 3-2. There is no way that we can make it if they split 4-1. Where are out tricks? Well, we have 5♥, 1♠, 1♦ and 4♣. A ♠-finesse would give us the 12th. Do we have to finesse? No. We can ruff a ♠ in dummy, meaning we have 5♥ in hand, 1♥ in dummy, 1♠, 1♦, and 4♣. How do we play? If we want to ruff ♠ we cant draw another 2 rounds of ♥. First idea: One more round ♥ (maybe ♥Q drops), then ♠A, ♠ ruffed. Then we get the following situation: [hv=pc=n&s=sqthk65dcqjt9&w=shdc&n=shdaqt9ck8742&e=shdc]399|300[/hv] We can get into hand with ♦-ruff, draw the last ♥, but ♣A is still out. Who ever has it, is playing ♠. Down. Next idea: We first ruff ♠. ♠A, ♠ ruffed. Drawing ♥ now leads to the same situation as before, so what about ♣ in this situation? [hv=pc=n&s=sqthak65dcqjt9&w=shdc&n=shjdaqt9ck8742&e=shdc]399|300[/hv] One opponent wins. If he returns ♠, we can ruff, get into the hand with ♦-ruff, draw the last trump, and done. If he returns ♥, we draw the last trump, and pitch 2♠ on ♦A and 5th ♣. And what about ♣? Obviously ♣ have to split 2-2 or ♣A has to be singleton that this works. What about ruffing ♠ TWICE? ♠A, ♠ ruffed, ♦A (♠ pitched), ♦ ruffed, ♠ ruffed leads to this situation, being in dummy: [hv=pc=n&s=shak6dcqjt9&w=shdc&n=shdqtck8742&e=shdc]399|300[/hv] If we now ruff ♦, draw ♥ we are down (♣A is still out). If we ruff ♦ and play ♣, someone is playing ♠, and we short of ♥, down. Meaning, again: ♣. Is this it? Almost, a last detail. What if the ♣A is with East? Then there is the risk, that E has 5 or 6 ♠ and is leading one. We are in a guessing position. The risk might be low (W bid ♠), but maybe we can avoid this risk? Lets repeat what we have already figured out: - trump-split 3-2 - before we play ♥, we need to play ♣, therefore we need ♣-split 2-2 or 3-1 with singleton A What about playing ♣ then immediately at trick 2? This play covers also the (small) risk that E has ♣A and 5 or 6 ♠. And it gives the additional chance that opponents dont find ♣-return at that early stage of the game, in case one opponent has 3rd ♣A. Voila!

[hv=pc=n&s=skqt62hadq94cakt5&w=s3h6dtc&n=s875hkjt92da3c762&e=sh3d6c3&v=n&=w&d=w&a=1Sppdp2hp2np3nppp&p=DTD3D6DQHAH6H2H3SQS3S5C3]399|300[/hv] You have reached 3NT after W had opened the bidding with 1♠. S made a mistake at trick 3, because W could have taken over and defeated the contract. But S's mistake was neutralized by W's one. Nevertheless, S needs another 6 tricks. How?

If it is ok with you, I am waiting another day or 2 until I am presenting a solution. In the meantime please feel free to come up with your ideas.