mb_dunedin

Sorry, I've never actually scrolled that far down the main page, so didn't know such a thing existed! Thanks for the replies. My feeling was we had a couple of chances to get a top or near-top board here so didn't really deserve an adjustment. I think it's a slightly perverse aspect to bridge that the opposition could get an 80% result for this hand though...

Playing matchpoints, vulnerable vs non, you pick up : ♠ Q.J ♥ A.Q.10.8.7.5.4.3 ♦ Q.7 ♣ 9 and you're very surprised to see the auction begin pass-pass-pass. 1. What's your plan? If you open 1H, then 2. What do you bid after [1S]-pass-[2S], and if RHO eventually bids 4S, what will you do? 3. What do you bid after [2NT]-pass-[3C], and if RHO eventually bids 5C, what will you do? 4. If you go no higher than 4H, are you happy to pass partner's double of 5C?

Playing a club game, a rather unusual auction progressed : South West North East pass - pass - pass - 1♥ [3♣] - pass - pass - 3♥ pass - pass - [4♣] - 4♥ pass - pass - [5♣] - pass pass - X - pass - pass [5D] - pass - pass - X all pass. The 5D bid got a long "oh" from the bidder's partner. Before the opening lead declarer informed us that the 3C bid showed at least 5-5 in spades and diamonds, not clubs. As is the norm at the club, no convention card was on the table. We were vulnerable, they weren't. With perfect (but not obvious) defence we could have taken them 4-light for 800, but we only managed to score 500. Unfortunately with a couple of kings onside, 4H made 5 so our 500 got us just 20% on the board with most EWs making 650 against less enthusiastic pre-empting from north (who held 5x clubs, but only 3x diamonds and spades.) At the table I assumed we were going to take them for a huge number, so didn't think to wonder if I should have called the director. If I had, what do you think he would have done?

With no support for partner and 10+ points, it's fairly common to play that the only response to RHO's double is to redouble. You may blast game with a ridiculous one-suited hand or something, but with most strong hands lacking support for partner you start with a redouble to tell partner that our side has most of the points. This means any new suit bid must guarantee fewer than 10 HCP and so can be treated as non-forcing. Not saying this is the perfect way to bid, but it's pretty common and is a decent start for new partnerships and B/I players in general.

An occasional partner suggested I drop (very) weak-jump-shifts, and instead play 1m-2M as a 6-card suit with around 6-8 HCP. The sort of hand that would usually respond 1M and then repeat the suit at the 2-level over pretty much any rebid from opener. What do folk think of this treatment? If you think it's silly, what is the best use for the jump-shift? And if you like it / use it, what do you do with the now available sequence : 1m - 1M (any)- 2M Thanks, MB

Sorry Antrax, your reply beat me by a couple of minutes.... but I still don't like the 2H rebid when it implies interesting shape and 2NT tells the whole story.

I agree with P-Marlowe that the 4NT bid was bad. Don't do it if the "2-with/without" responses push you too high. I think in the beginner/intermediate forum we'll skip the discussion on alternative ace-asks to 4NT, but you can see why experts do find some other route. As you say, the 4NT bidder here could reasonably expect to hear at least three key-cards in response, which suggests the 2C bid was the one which got you into bother. I'd certainly open this 1D - downgrade for the Q singleton and KQ doubleton, it's a hand which I'd plan to show by opening 1D and rebidding 3NT. If partner passes, then it's very unlikely we've missed a game. I am of course crossing my fingers that partner has a club stop, or it isn't led. If the suit were a major, then I'd agree with a 2C opening, but you need extra stength to open 2C when holding a long minor. As P_Marlowe says, when parter replies 2C, you get lucky and can make a forcing 3D rebid instead.

To "attach the blame" as requested... as P_Marlowe suggested, squarely with east's 2H bid. Unless agreed otherwise that shows 16+ HCP after which west can hardly be blamed for wanting to play in a slam. Even if it's agreed that the bid need not guarantee extra points in a 2/1 situation, it definitely promises extra shape. With a weak-no-trump hand (and particularly with the lovely stops in both majors), east has to rebid 2NT. If west has 4x hearts, the heart fit shouldn't get lost. After 1D-2C-2NT, west has a tough choice. 3C is forcing and descriptive but I'm not sure how the bid helps the auction along - what does west plan to bid over any 3-of-a-suit bid from partner? 3NT is pragmatic, while 4C Gerber would be perfect for the day partner has Axx-Axxx-Axxx-xx....

Mmm. I confess that was how I would have played it, and I assumed that it was how declarer had played it, so I was surprised to see the line actually taken. I thought OP got lucky to concede just the 9 tricks. But then when I made my plan I could see all four hands, which takes away a couple of guesses, and generally improves my declarer play no end...

At the risk of hijacking the thread - declarer will probably make 10 tricks off a trump lead. Should declarer get 10 tricks off the QD lead?

Yeah, what awm said... The issue is that slam might be makeable when partner doesn't have the AD, but you won't know whether to bid it when you use Blackwood. In general, don't use Blackwood when you have two quick losers (a small doubleton or worse) in an unbid suit. Blackwood works fine when you discover all the key cards, but just leaves you guessing when one is missing. Unfortunately having got to 4H already, cue-ing may not help you locate the diamond king. If partner has both minor kings but only responds with first round controls, he/she will rebid 5H over your first cue-bid, and you are still left with a guess. It's worth discussing with partner how you cue-bid, particularly where you're at the 5-level already. Btw, does everyone agree with Lawrence that you should cue-bid 5C here? Is that better than 4S? Is the message "I'm looking for slam and have bypassed my own suit, hence I must have the ace of that one..." But then how would you bid with AD and AC but only Q-high in spades?

So the lead is purely count, and says nothing about an honour holding? I can see that it's not ideal that partner doesn't know if you've led the 2 from K-7-2 or K-10-7-2. But does it not also create similar problems for partner if you'd lead the 6 from both K-8-6-4 and 9-8-6-4?

Unfortunately the bidding was at 3H or 4H by the time it came back to you so 2S wasn't an option.

Thanks for the responses. I posted because it was a club game and 16 of 17 pairs holding this hand went minus, as there were only 9 tricks available in any contract and no-one was willing to defend with this hand (which was unfortunate as the opps couldn't make more than 7 tricks in hearts). Partner held xxx - QJx - Axxxxx - x so 3NT was laydown. Over a 1C opening the opposition pre-empted hearts, and partner wasn't strong enough to bid 2NT or higher. One pair found the spade "fit" and went for -1100 in 6S. The only pair to end up positive did in fact open 3NT. The responder said afterwards he wasn't expecting partner to have a side ace and he couldn't see 9 tricks in no-trumps, but nor could he see 10 in clubs. He figured an in tempo pass might keep the opps out of 4H or 4S. Chatting afterwards some of us felt the problem seemed to be that we weren't sure what a 3rd seat 3NT bid should look like. I know your hand can/should be a little stronger in the outside suits, but I've never seen it closely defined just what "a little extra" might include. I was wondering if this hand should sway my thinking into allowing a side ace, or if this is just a freak hand that you can't cater for in a normal system. The consensus seems to be the latter, thanks.

It begins pass-pass- What do you open with : ♠ A.x.x.x ♥ x ♦ x ♣ A.K.Q.J.T.x.x Does vulnerability affect your choice? (edited... removed the 8th club and 14th card...)

Thanks.

Hi folks, This might be better on the beginner's forum, but I'll try it here. I'm an Acol-er, trying to learn 2/1. Most descriptions of the system focus on how opener rebids over 1NT or a 2/1. My question is on when the bidding is at the 2-level but not in a GF situation. I'm unsure what point count opener needs to rebid 2NT or 3NT in the following situations. ONE - opposite a passed hand which replies at the 2-level : pass - pass - 1H - pass 2C - pass - ?? TWO - when partner replies at the 2-level over interference : 1H - [2C] - 2D - pass ?? THREE - when partner bids at the 1-level but an opponent bids at the 2-level : 1H - pass - 1S - [2C] ?? Can anyone tell me what 2NT (and by inference, 3NT) should show in these situations. Thanks, Matt