SimonFa

Thanks for the responses, some food for thought. I'll probably stick to the simpler lines as I play mostly online or against by Bridge Baron app. PS Double Diamond beer was disgusting. My father's pub served it and I wouldn't drink it if that was all he had left.

Teams, non vul. ♠KQ63 ♥A75 ♦AQ753 ♣K (P) P (1C*) ? *With 4432 they still bid 1C. I thought I had 2 options dbl or 1D, there may be others. (1) If I dbl and then bid diamonds that would show a strong hand above about 17 pts, which the point count manages but is it really that good with a bare K in opponents' opening bid? The supporting cards aren't very good either, a few 9s and Ts might help. However, partner might not read the bare K and be tempted to take the finesse if he needs one, assuming I don't get round to showing it as a strong hand. (2) On the other hand if I bid 1D I give partner a lead if he needs one but the bidding might be too high before I can get in again. Both bids allow us to find a major suit fit, esp spades if they've got hearts. In the end I went for the dbl and hoped that if I didn't get in again and they needed the finesse in clubs I might make my king. I'm interested if there's any better reasoning and if there's a better bid. Thanks in advance, Simon

Thanks for the answers, 1NT definately the wrong bid. Here's the hand diagram as requested. [hv=pc=n&s=sk84h763dkqt8cj86&w=sq632h9842d63ca97&n=sa975hqjdj9752c53&e=sjthakt5da4ckqt42]399|300[/hv]

We play 2/1 but with diamonds also needing to be a 5-card suit so 1C bid could be a singleton. Partner is very experienced (super grand pooh bear master or something) but we haven't been playing together very long and haven't discussed reversing. Our meta agreement is to go with what looks right (usually natural) and we'll pick the pieces of any disasters afterwards (as we're doing with this hand). I'm also prepared to accept I haven't quite grasped a reverse :( but I think its still an instructive hand. MPs both Vul. ♠JT ♥AKT5 ♦A4 ♣KQT42 P (P) ? All pass I went for 1NT because of the preemptive value opposite a passed hand although I did consider the hand very strong for 1NT with the 2 x Tens. As I said, we hadn't discussed reversing and with playing a short club I didn't want to risk serious confusion. We got 17% because 3H scores 11 tricks and I only made the double dummy 10 tricks. Should I have assumed partner would pick up the reverse or is 1NT still the best bid? Is a reverse even sound playing a short club system? Any other thoughts welcome. As always, thanks in advance, Simon PS We also plan 1D response to 1C is negative, less than 5HCP

What would you have bid?

Thanks. We do't play Lebensohl as we're just an occasional partnership and try to keep things simple. In the absence of a firm agreement all bids are natural.

MPs, R v W, Opps are county level and my partner has played county level. Me ♠3 ♥AKJ94 ♦KQ6 ♣AQ98 Partner ♠JT98 ♥QT7 ♦T42 ♣JT7 [2S*] X [P] [2NT] [P] 3NT [X] All pass *Described as could be very weak and 5 cards (looking at the traveller I suspect nobody else bid it) My original thoughts we X and then 3H but partner's 2NT was unexpected and as it was MP maybe 3NT would be a good result. I did wonder about 4H after the their double but then we could be getting out of control and make a bad situation worse. As RHO said at the end of the bidding, it was going to be a top for one of us. In the end -2 for a bottom. Most tables played in 1H with one table making 4H and another 3H. Double dummy has us as 3H max. So, any thoughts? Given the strength of my Hearts would 3H have been a better start? Should I have stuck to my original plan and bid 3H over partners 2NT? Or should I just shrug and accept sometime preempts work as partner would not have bid over 1H from me?

Thanks for the replies, very helpful. Going back to my first question can this be a forcing situation as partner has limited her hand? I seem to remember reading on here some time ago that a limited hand can't create a forcing situation. (Justin Lall springs to mind, but apologies if it wasn't him)

Vul v Non, Teams, 2/1, partner deals. ♥JT9532 ♠KT6 ♦763 ♣6 1NT P 2D 3C P P ? 1NT = 15-17 may contain a singleton (A or K) or 6 card minor 2D = transfer Is south forced to bid in this situation? Obviously with 6 cards it's tempting, but what if its only 5? If you do bid is system generally on and therefore 3D is still a transfer or does South have to bid direct?

What Mr Ace said, plus 1NT has to be one of the hardest contracts to defend against.

That makes sense, thanks.

The EBU says we should announce when a 1 club opener may be short. In our system it also denies a 5-cards + in the other suits. Should we announce or alert as it carries specific information outside the general announcement. Thanks in advance, Simon

Thanks for the link, Helen. I had forgotten that and it makes sense. However in this context I was questioning whether a forcing bid could be made after 1♠ (p) 1NT) P ? which is how I read the original comment.

Is it possible to make a forcing bid in this situation? AIUI partner can pass 2H, 2S and 3S?

IMPs, W v R ♠KQ986 ♥T ♦AQ976 ♣K9 (P) 1S (P) 2NT (P) ? As I saw it I had 3 choices: 3H - Shows the singleton and saves bidding space. It doesn't promise extras but does it deny them? 3S - From what I've read I probably need to be a bit stronger but it has the advantage of being more slam oriented as certainly not a minimum 4D - Shows the 5 card suit and therefore nature of the hand. In the end I went for 3H and we found the slam but I'm not convinced it was the best choice. What does the panel think? Edited to change hands round, see gwnn's comment

This came up on my iBridgeBaron Teams, W v W, Playing 2/1. ♠AT96 ♥K6 ♦K2 ♣AK876 P (P) ? When I was dealt this hand I thought: Seems a bit strong for 1NT with Aces and Kings but it is pre-emptive and bidding NT first protects the Kings. Reversing is an option and this gets the strength and distribution across, but lets ops in and a NT contract could be wrong sided. What's your choice, or do you have another bid?

I'm back to playing real world bridge after a lay off caused by work so hopefully will be getting more active here again. Anyway, a simple question to start with .... Club game, RHO is average in UK NGS system. MPs, RvR. North ♠Q932 ♥AK84 ♦K85 ♣87 South ♠764 ♥J52 ♦A94 ♣QJ54 Bidding P (P) 1D (P) 1NT All pass Trick 1 H3 H4 HT HJ Assuming H3 is an honest 4th highest from an honour, LHO is solid but predictable, how do you read RHO's HT? If she had T9 would she play the nine for partner as some would? If not she has must have T7 or T6 and we can finesse with the 8. I chose that line and RHO won the trick with the nine. At the end when I asked about it she said always hi-lo with a doubleton. Is it best play to give count in this NT situation or play the nine to show the ten? I think I would have played the nine that way if partner gets in they know its safe to lead a low heart.

IMPs, R v W, 2/1 ♠AK76542 ♥97 ♦KQJ5 ♣void 1♣ (P) 1♠ (P) 1N (P) ? At the table I did seriously think about a slam as all partner needed was xx AKxx Axx xxxx but bailed out because it seemed so improbable. I see no point in using a spoiler because you've probably guessed that partner had the perfect hand (why else would I be posting :) ) and 13 tricks duly rolled in on split spades and a diamond lead. So would anyone seriously go looking for a slam and if so how? The lazy option, which I took, was to bid a direct 4♠.

Thanks everyone. I was wondering if I'd missed an obscure convention but it doesn't look like it. I suspect that what is happening is that depending on the skill level a certain amount of randomisation seems to have been added to the bidding and play and it has resulted in this bid. I say that because sometimes with identical bidding it finds widely different opening leads and lines of play even when the CPU is playing both tables. I've also seen it having different bidding when my had has passed throughout at both tables.

[hv=pc=n&s=skj98hakj4dkt3c98&n=sat764hq7daq62ckq&d=e&v=0&b=14&a=p1np2hp2sp6nppp]266|200[/hv] North was my iBridgeBaron set to play 2/1 at "master" level. What's the point of the transfer then a bid of 6NT? Am I supposed to bid 7♠with a maximum and if I have a max surely I would have super accepted? As always,thanks in advance, Simon Edit: Scoring was IMPS, nominally teams in that the computer calculates the score for the other table and even shows the bidding and play.

North could be playing SAYC* ..... According to the book Standard Bidding with SAYC by Ned Downey and Ellen Pomer (Caitlin),(page 33), responding to a Major: - Minimum range 6-9/10HCP and littler interest in game unless partner is very strong. I don't think your hand counts as very strong. However that's a very poorly evaluated hand and if playing SAYC I would bid 2D. If it is 2/1 then passing 2S is another poor evaluation. Playing 2/1 I might be tempted to bid 3S with South cards and Vul if I know partner is conservative and doesn't just automatically accept invites, but expect to be in a tough game if partner raises. *In my experience in MBC very few people who have SAYC in their profile are even aware it is a full system and just think it means 5-card majors and strong 1NT.

I have 7 tricks off the top with the 4th Heart and the 4th club making 9. It looks like at least 4 losers before they get in to Spades, 3 Diamonds and a Heart. It therefore looks like the key to this is keeping the C7 so I can get back to enjoy the 4th Heart if they break. If they don't break I don't see how I can make it unless something silly happens in Spades and Diamonds. I reckon I also need to set up that 4th Heart before they can exchange too much information and I end up losing more than 3 Diamonds. So the first decision is the best way to make four club tricks. Without seeing the bidding the odds favour the finesse and because I need the C7 I only get one finesse so they need to break or the CQ needs to drop if 4-1. Something tells me I should be playing for the drop, though. So after winning SK, perforce, I'm playing C10 and covering with JC, then HAK8 and hope they haven't figured out the Diamond position so they take 4 of them.

A newish partnership playing 2/1 and if in doubt Gibberish applies. This came up in a Speedball and we are exploring how we should have bid. I thought it would be informative to do a bit of crowd sourcing as well. Both Vul ♠AK ♥Q8432 ♦AK73 ♣93 ♠- ♥K ♦Q86 ♣AKQJT7542 At the table I just lazily blasted 5C even though, IIRC, we weren't under any time pressure. I agree with partner that the best opening is 1C, which as we play it as 2+, is very unlikely to be passed out. We took advice after the tourney about 2C as I wasn't sure but something made me think it wasn't a legal bid in ACBL land and that was confirmed by some TDs ,although they said its marginal. (I think it's legal in EBU land where 8.5 playing tricks is acceptable for 2C openings but happy to be corrected.) So, assuming I start 1C how do you see the bidding going? And how do you see it going if LHO over calls a weak 2S? As always, thanks in advance, Simon

I'm not sure I'd key card opposite a likely void in Spades unless we've sorted out our void showing responses, 5D is much simpler.

My judgement when it comes to making doubles is terrible. I thought about it on this hand but decided against because of the points distribution. I didn't bid on because it was GIB and partner would have expected a lot more and, as others found out, you end up way too high. Results suggest it was a doubling hand but opinion was split amongst those who didn't bid on. MPs, W v W. ♠KT654 ♥K ♦KQ ♣QT582 P (P) 1S (2H) P (P) ? 75% wasn't a bad result, just wondering if I missed an obvious double. As always, thanks in advance, Simon PS