SimonFa

Thanks for the responses, some food for thought. I'll probably stick to the simpler lines as I play mostly online or against by Bridge Baron app. PS Double Diamond beer was disgusting. My father's pub served it and I wouldn't drink it if that was all he had left.

Teams, non vul. ♠KQ63 ♥A75 ♦AQ753 ♣K (P) P (1C*) ? *With 4432 they still bid 1C. I thought I had 2 options dbl or 1D, there may be others. (1) If I dbl and then bid diamonds that would show a strong hand above about 17 pts, which the point count manages but is it really that good with a bare K in opponents' opening bid? The supporting cards aren't very good either, a few 9s and Ts might help. However, partner might not read the bare K and be tempted to take the finesse if he needs one, assuming I don't get round to showing it as a strong hand. (2) On the other hand if I bid 1D I give partner a lead if he needs one but the bidding might be too high before I can get in again. Both bids allow us to find a major suit fit, esp spades if they've got hearts. In the end I went for the dbl and hoped that if I didn't get in again and they needed the finesse in clubs I might make my king. I'm interested if there's any better reasoning and if there's a better bid. Thanks in advance, Simon

Thanks for the answers, 1NT definately the wrong bid. Here's the hand diagram as requested. [hv=pc=n&s=sk84h763dkqt8cj86&w=sq632h9842d63ca97&n=sa975hqjdj9752c53&e=sjthakt5da4ckqt42]399|300[/hv]

We play 2/1 but with diamonds also needing to be a 5-card suit so 1C bid could be a singleton. Partner is very experienced (super grand pooh bear master or something) but we haven't been playing together very long and haven't discussed reversing. Our meta agreement is to go with what looks right (usually natural) and we'll pick the pieces of any disasters afterwards (as we're doing with this hand). I'm also prepared to accept I haven't quite grasped a reverse :( but I think its still an instructive hand. MPs both Vul. ♠JT ♥AKT5 ♦A4 ♣KQT42 P (P) ? All pass I went for 1NT because of the preemptive value opposite a passed hand although I did consider the hand very strong for 1NT with the 2 x Tens. As I said, we hadn't discussed reversing and with playing a short club I didn't want to risk serious confusion. We got 17% because 3H scores 11 tricks and I only made the double dummy 10 tricks. Should I have assumed partner would pick up the reverse or is 1NT still the best bid? Is a reverse even sound playing a short club system? Any other thoughts welcome. As always, thanks in advance, Simon PS We also plan 1D response to 1C is negative, less than 5HCP

What would you have bid?

Thanks. We do't play Lebensohl as we're just an occasional partnership and try to keep things simple. In the absence of a firm agreement all bids are natural.

MPs, R v W, Opps are county level and my partner has played county level. Me ♠3 ♥AKJ94 ♦KQ6 ♣AQ98 Partner ♠JT98 ♥QT7 ♦T42 ♣JT7 [2S*] X [P] [2NT] [P] 3NT [X] All pass *Described as could be very weak and 5 cards (looking at the traveller I suspect nobody else bid it) My original thoughts we X and then 3H but partner's 2NT was unexpected and as it was MP maybe 3NT would be a good result. I did wonder about 4H after the their double but then we could be getting out of control and make a bad situation worse. As RHO said at the end of the bidding, it was going to be a top for one of us. In the end -2 for a bottom. Most tables played in 1H with one table making 4H and another 3H. Double dummy has us as 3H max. So, any thoughts? Given the strength of my Hearts would 3H have been a better start? Should I have stuck to my original plan and bid 3H over partners 2NT? Or should I just shrug and accept sometime preempts work as partner would not have bid over 1H from me?

Thanks for the replies, very helpful. Going back to my first question can this be a forcing situation as partner has limited her hand? I seem to remember reading on here some time ago that a limited hand can't create a forcing situation. (Justin Lall springs to mind, but apologies if it wasn't him)

Vul v Non, Teams, 2/1, partner deals. ♥JT9532 ♠KT6 ♦763 ♣6 1NT P 2D 3C P P ? 1NT = 15-17 may contain a singleton (A or K) or 6 card minor 2D = transfer Is south forced to bid in this situation? Obviously with 6 cards it's tempting, but what if its only 5? If you do bid is system generally on and therefore 3D is still a transfer or does South have to bid direct?

What Mr Ace said, plus 1NT has to be one of the hardest contracts to defend against.

That makes sense, thanks.

The EBU says we should announce when a 1 club opener may be short. In our system it also denies a 5-cards + in the other suits. Should we announce or alert as it carries specific information outside the general announcement. Thanks in advance, Simon

Thanks for the link, Helen. I had forgotten that and it makes sense. However in this context I was questioning whether a forcing bid could be made after 1♠ (p) 1NT) P ? which is how I read the original comment.

Is it possible to make a forcing bid in this situation? AIUI partner can pass 2H, 2S and 3S?

IMPs, W v R ♠KQ986 ♥T ♦AQ976 ♣K9 (P) 1S (P) 2NT (P) ? As I saw it I had 3 choices: 3H - Shows the singleton and saves bidding space. It doesn't promise extras but does it deny them? 3S - From what I've read I probably need to be a bit stronger but it has the advantage of being more slam oriented as certainly not a minimum 4D - Shows the 5 card suit and therefore nature of the hand. In the end I went for 3H and we found the slam but I'm not convinced it was the best choice. What does the panel think? Edited to change hands round, see gwnn's comment