kieran c

K-S is .....?

Of course I should have clarified, 1NT by responder is 6-9 (I have now amended original post to show this).

Playing weak NT, 5card Majors, MPs, none vul. 2 passes to me, ♠AKT8 ♥Q83 ♦A5 ♣QJ75. I open 1♣, partner responds 1NT (showing 6-9). Should I invite with 2NT? Or are the chances of finding partner with 9hcp too low to justify?

Thanks to all for their very constructive input. You have reinforced my initial impression that 2♠ by opener does not guarantee 3 card support and for sure shows a minimum hand, given the availability of 3♠ to show 3 card ♠ support and (perhaps) better than minimum hand, 2NT to show ♦ stop and minimum hand, and 3♣ to show a hand only good for ♣..minimum 6. I particularly like the idea that opener with 3♠s should raise responder's 1♠ to 2♠ in preference to rebidding 2♣. Ron Klinger recommends this (p8 "Guide to better Acol bridge"...the blue book, and p71 "Understandiing the uncontested auction"). If so, then supporting ♠ only at second oppurtunity suggests 2 only. Thanks again all :)

I suppose least bad bid... So 3♣ would show no 3♠s, no♦stop, 6♣s? I can find no reference in the books for the initial question of 3card support v preference with 2...any help?

(My background is Acol, assume 4card Majors) Auction goes 1♣:1♠, 2♣:2♥, 2♠....is this showing 3card spade support or just "preference" with 2spades? If this is showing 3card support, would 2NT guarantee ♦ stop?

Thanks Mikeh I am beginning to get my head around the pros and cons and will hoepfully be better prepared next time. P.S. to make it even worse...it was at teams :(

Thanks. Yes partner is almost required to reopen with a double if short (<3) in ♦. If my reason for passing was extreme weakness I will bid something.

Thanks. My problem is that I thought these criteria indicate when it is best to play for penalties. Are they valid if game is a possibility? When all I know about partner's strength is that he opened and reopened with X, how can I tell which action (penalties v game chance) is best?

We play negative doubles, Acol. We are vulnerable. I pick up ♠A87 ♥6 ♦QJT2 ♣KT972. Partner opens 1♥, RHO overcalls 2♦, I pass for penalties, partner dutifully reopens with X which I pass. We defeat the contract by 1 (double dummy I can only make it 2 down) when there was a nice 3nt in it for us if I bid 2nt after the 2♦ overcall. Playing for penalties gave us an awful result. I used the following criteria to pass for penalties: 8+hcp misfit with partner's suit rule of 6 (2 level contract + 4 trumps) rule of 4 (2 level contract + 2 sure trump winners). My hand also meets the bridgeguys.com "rule of 9" criteria (level of contract + my trumps + my trumps honours). Catch is these criteria also describle a 2nt (Acol) response by me which finds us our 3nt game. I can find no guidance in books or on the web in choosing between 2nt and passing for penalties. Help!

Thanks...error corrected yes you are right I meant 3h. Reopening with X instead of 2h makes sense if opener has 16pts.

Apologies...I may have not made it clear that the auction went 1♣ (1♠): pass by me (pass), 2h (pass) to me....at which point I bid 3♥ and wondered if I was overencouraging.

Thank you. We don't use strong 2s but use Benji 2♣ to show (single-suited) hands with 9 winners (and 2♦ for hands with 10 winners), however 2 suiters are best bid starting with a bid of 1 suit so it is just possible he might have a 2 suited hand which needs just 1 trick from me to make game..just.

This question might only be relevant to Acol bidders. I pick up a 2 point hand with 4 hearts (♠3 ♥4 ♦4 ♣2). My partner opens 1♣, RHO overcalls 1♠, I pass. Partner rebids 2♥ so I know he has 16+pts; I bid 3♥, he raises to 4♥, down 1. Should I have passed his 2♥ and only bid ♥ if ops bid again? Will my partner be angry if he makes 2♥+2? Perhaps he should not have raised to 4♥, but he is an ambitious bidder and a good player (it is almost against his religion to play in 3♥). We all know that his reverse is forcing for 1 round, but we learned this in the context where I (responder) have bid showing at least 6pts. I cannot find guidance on this situation where partner only gets to show his reverse thanks to an overcall by ops. Is the fact that I have passed (we use negative doubles so with 6pts and 4♥ I would have doubled) enough to let partner work out that I have few pts? If I pass his 2♥ and bid 3♥ only if ops bid 2♠ he might assume I have only 3♥. Suggestions?