mr1303

Double here is played as penalty by both players. However, it isn't a command to pass, if responder has something like x xxx KJTxxxxx xx he is perfectly entitled to pull the double. Equally, if you play double as take out (I don't) with an 8-9 count and 4 clubs, you don't want partner to leave the double in here, as you have nowhere near enough defence to set 2C. Hence with this hand it is perfectly correct to bid 2H. Presumably in your methods pass would show a balanced hand here, with nothing new to say, so partner is now in a much better position to make a penalty double with one of the stronger options that comes with 1NT forcing.

The reason that I play bad pre-empts through 2NT is that it allows partner to judge well when to bid 3NT, and when to shut up. If I have to have AKxxxxx and an outside K every time I pre-empt, the frequency of them is greatly reduced. As for the length, 6 cards is plenty of length for a club pre-empt. By the way Mike, Angela Pullen ws the person who pre-empted on that. Played in 7D and made it after the auction 2NT (P) 7C-pass/correct (P) 7D when opps didn't cash their ace at trick 1.

If I have 2NT as a bad pre-empt, I open it. Otherwise no. When I open 2NT, my partner knows not to bid 3NT unless he/she has 9 tricks in her own hand :) I've a partner who's done it on Jxxxxx and out, at all vul.

I'm not sure what version of Keri you guys are playing, but as I understood it raises of a major in the invitational sequence are as follows: After 1NT 2C 2D 2S 3C = 4 trumps, useful minimum, 4432 pattern. 3D = Any max 4333 (even with 4S 3S = Max WITH EXACTLY 3 TRUMPS 4S = Max with 4 trumps (not 4333)

2NT showing 11-14 is much more dangerous in balancing to a weak 2 than in balancing to a 1 level opening, as responder may well pass on a strong hand with no fit. It is correct to reduce the values needed for this bid slightly, but 14-16 is about the limit. With 17-19 here I double first, then bid 2NT if partner bids 2S. If partner bids 2NT, Lebensohl I usually complete the puppet, as partner cannot have a good hand. With 20+ I decide what kind of mood I'm in, whether I double and bid 3NT, or just bid it straight off. In direct seat 2NT = 16-18, X then 2NT = 19-22, X = then 3NT = 23+, 3NT direct = long solid minor, stopper.

I guess this is a good hand to playing a strong 1C on.....

In the UK, if you don't alert 2NT there, opps presume it shows 20-22 balanced, and bid accordingly. If partner doesn't also bid as though it shows 20-22 balanced (i.e. bids 4H with only 3 hearts) then you get an adjusted score. Mind you over here stayman has to be alerted, although not strong jump overcalls, which, for what it's worth is one of my pet hates especially when it goes: 1S (3D) P P X XX = - lots.

With this hand, I think 1C is the only sensible opening. Opening this 2C will lead to problems later in the auction. Over 1D, I have a few difficulties. With Kx in hearts, I happily rebid 3NT, showing running clubs and all other suits stopped. So I think it'll have to be an underbid of 3C, as I stand to look stupid if they run the first 6 heart tricks, when 5 or 6 clubs was cold. I have methods after 1H 1S, or indeed 1NT for that matter. I use 3C as a multi-meaning sort of bid. Either: a) Natural, either 5-4 H+C and happy to play in 3NT, or strong 2 suited. B) A hand that could miss slam opposite an 8-9 count, with very strong hearts c) A strong hand with 6 hearts and 3S, happy to play in either 4H/4S or 3NT. Responder is requested to bid 3D, for opener to clarify his hand type. with hand a he bids 3NT or 4C, depending on how 2 suited his hand is with b he bids 3H with c he bids 3S This works better after 1S 1NT 3C shows a strong hand with 5S 4H, a strong spade hand, or a natural 3C bid. Hence the jump shift to 3H promises 5-5 shape

If my partner passes 6D, I get a new partner.....

I play that 2NT (Lebensohl) followed by 3S shows useful values with only 4 spades (a direct 3S would promise 5). Therefore if partner has extras with only 3S, we can get to 3NT. If we stop in 3S here, the chances are we weren't making anything anyway Mark

Ben mentioned whether 1C 1S 2S 3C should be forcing or not. Here's a hand that came up in a challenge the champs bidding competition: [hv=s=sxxhaqxdaqxxxcxxx]133|100|[/hv] The bidding went 1D 1H 2H 3D. If 3D is forcing, how should I bid on? 3H should definitely promise a 4th heart here, I reckon.

In my limited opening system (16+ 1C, 4+ 1D), we have this strongly defined when we can raise with 3 card support. I'm replacing 1C 1S 2S with 1D 1S 2S 1) If the raise is made on a 3 card suit, it'll be based on our 11-13 balanced hand. A bid of 1NT here will deny a small doubleton in one of the unbid suits, and 1 of the suits will be properly stopped 2) We can raise with 3 cards and a good 6 card minor, but we use 2NT for this bid. Since 2NT has no normal meaning in a limited opening system, we lose nothing by bidding this way, especially as we pass with weak hands without a fit. 3) 1D 1S 2S 3D is not forcing, but is a game invitation. With any 4 card support for spades we return to at least 3 spades. We are only able to pass this since 1D always promises 4 diamonds. 4) 2NT is natural and invitational, suggesting only 4 spades 5) 3S is asking for good trumps here (AQx is good trumps, xxxx is bad trumps.) Responder will have 5 cards for this bid 6) See 2. We like to open 1NT (12-15, maybe 4414) a lot, as we have good agreements over 1NT openings), and anything stronger is opened 1C. With 3145/4154 shape we rebid 2C, unless the minors are weak and the spades are strong.

spades were 6-0 as it happened, but East couldn't (or didn't) ruff, hence the lack of a Lightner double. Drew trumps and played ace and another heart, hoping that east would win and be forced to lead away from the diamond K, but sadly he didn't.

We play Lawrence style 2/1, where 3H is initially looking for 3NT, but 4C suggests slam interest, and says that 3H became a cue-bid. We didn't have an agreement that 3C would show extra values or not, which probably should be discussed. I bid 4S (I was South) asking for partner to only bid slam with a useful hand, and wanted partner to bid 4NT without (not this is matchpoints: 5C would not be likely to be a good score, and so I bid 6C because I figured I'd rather get a bottom going for a top than get one generally.

Playing 2/1, matchpoints, all vul Bidding goes: 1S 2C 3C 3H 3NT 4C 4D 4S 5C 6C even a spade lead away from the KJ wasn't enough to enable this one to make[hv=d=n&v=b&n=sqt8xxhxxdatckqxx&s=sa9haxdqxxcajtxxx]133|200|Scoring: MP[/hv]

On hand 2, I'm going to bid 3C (diamond splinter). If partner jumps to 4 of a major (showing a 5 card suit) I'm happy, if partner bids 3H, I can bid 3NT (denying 4S), if partner bids 3S, I can bid 3NT (partner is denying 4 hearts), if partner bids 4C, I raise to 5, if partner bids 3D (showing no wasted values) I bid 4C, and see what partner can do from there. Ideally I'd like him to bid 4S. On the first hand, I open 2S, showing spades and a minor. I just don't have the defence here to be able to open this at the 1 level

Hi everyone. Last night I was playing Khamerashi, a strongly modified strong club system, when 1D promises 0 diamonds (if 4405 shape). The following auction happened: P RHO Me LHO 1D 2D ? I asked what 2D was, and LHO said it was natural, showing diamonds. I held: [hv=s=s98xxhqjxdxxcakxx]133|100|[/hv] Any ideas what I should do here, and what bids should mean in this situation. This isn't one they teach you at bridge school.

Hi. My partner and I are trying to come up with a new set of responses to 1NT 2C must be symmetric relay. (2D = 4+ hearts, 2H = 4+ spades, not 4 hearts, 2S = any 4333, 2NT = 5 diamonds, 3C-S = 5 clubs). Responder can also check range after opener's shape has been defined 2D = puppet to 2H for sign off in 2M/3m 2H/S = invite, Keri style, 4+ 2NT = bal invite, no 4 card major 3C/D = invite, Keri style, 6+ cards I'm wondering what I can now do with 3M bids direct after 1NT, and also after the 2D puppet followed by 2NT, 3NT, and 3M Any ideas? Mark

The question I'm interested in is do you play 2H as double negative or something similar. If 2D is both waiting and negative at the same time, then partner can have something like xx xx xxxx xxxxx when you don't want to even be in 4H, let alone 5 or 6. Without any extra information, I assume that he might well do, and so pass

I agree. With each of those hands they should all be opened 1NT, as you want to be declarer whereever you finish up, with all your tenace positions. Say you end up in 3NT after a 1S opening and your partner declares, the lead will be going through your tenaces, which could well be worth 2-3 tricks. The only time with 15-17 bal (playing a strong NT) that I won't open 1NT with a 5 card major is if I have a hand such as: AKQxx AKx xxx xx when there really is no advantage to me playing the hand, as my tricks will be tricks no matter who declares the hand. However, with a small doubleton spade and a 5 card heart suit, I always open 1NT if in range. Mark

I play forcing for 1 round, and I use Lebensohl after a reverse if responder has such an appaling hand that he wishes to sign off at the 3 level. However, I also tell my partners to make sure they have their bid if they reverse, especially with the sequence 1H 1NT 2S As responder it is GF, although can stop in 4m if no stopper in a suit for 3NT. I'm from the UK, and I reckon I can play a bit on a good day. Won't say anything more than that though

I've missed this as well I'm Mark, 21 year old Chemistry student from Bristol, Manchester or London depending on the time of year. I like playing strong club systems, and am in the process of learning MOSCITO relays. Non-bridge stuff, I like singing karaoke, playing on dancing stage euromix, and surfing.

The 1 level structure seems fairly similar to a form of romex that a few friends of mine used to play. 1C = clubs or 12-14 bal 1D = diamonds or 15-17 bal 1H/S = 5 cards, unbalanced 1NT = strong, 18-21, may or may not be balanced They had a great deal of success with it. I know they played some kind of transfers after 1 of a minor openings

Mike Lawrence suggests the following structure after pass 1M 2C 2D is the important response. It asks if partner is max or min, and how many trumps he has. 2H = any min, usually only 3 trumps, if 4 then poor shape 2S = balanced max with 3 trumps 2NT = max with 4 trumps 3C = distributional max with 3 trumps. There will be a singleton somewhere. With 4 trumps and a singleton, he recommends a direct 2NT response to 1M Other than that, after P 1S 2C 2D = as above 2H = full, usually minimum opener, suggesting an alternative strain (4-4 usually better than 5-3) 2S = sign off 2NT = 18-19 bal 3C = 5-5, slam interest 3D/H = as 3C 3S = requests a cue-bid 3NT = 15-17 bal, with a hand that chose not to open 1NT 4C/D/H = splinter 4S = to play After P 1H 2C 2D = as above 2H = sign off 2S = reversing values, slam try Other bids are similar in structure to P 1S 2C Mark

My partner and I play relays after a strong 1C opening and a positive response. During a relay, oppos may make a lead directional double. How should we continue after this E.g. 1C (P) 1S (P) 1NT (P) 2C (X) 1C is 16+, 1S 4+ hearts unbal, 1NT relay, 2C = hearts and diamonds What would be the best meaning for pass, redouble and 2D? Thanks for your thoughts Mark