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mr1303

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Everything posted by mr1303

  1. Just a question, why did opener open 1C rather than 1D? 1) You much prefer a diamond lead rather than a club lead, should opps play the hand 2) When you open 1D, partner will know that you have 4+ diamonds, and will be happier about raising when he should. Another point, I don't think this hand is worth 3NT after partner bids 1NT. It is aceless, and the take-out double marks the opposition strength as over the strong hand. I think 2NT is plenty here.
  2. In terms so simple that Mike Bell (MickyB) can understand it, what is a Grosvenor Coup?
  3. If I can x for take-out, I do that. Otherwise 3D I think. A bit more horrible if double isn't for take-out
  4. The latest spot of advice going round it that you should never pull partner's penalty doubles because you've misbid the hand earlier. E.g. You hold: xxxxxx x x xxxxx And the bidding goes 1H (X) 4H to you. If you bid 4S here (in all honesty, who wouldn't) you must not pull partner's penalty double of 5H because you felt that you said you had something on the previous round.
  5. If I was to ever redouble a contract at the 7 level, this is it. Assuming pard is sane when he bids 5NT of course....
  6. If NS don't have a Jacoby 2NT available, then a 2C response isn't unreasonable, since North intends to keep bidding spades no matter how much South bids clubs. I also imagine that NS had no agreement that 2C could be artificial anyway. Unless I had firm evidence to the contrary I would tell EW not to waste my time.
  7. Pass. I might X if that was for penalty, but it isn't, so I won't.
  8. Call me old fashioned, but I really prefer North to bid spades at some point in the auction below the 7 level.....
  9. As I learnt Drury, 3C here was forcing and showed slam interest, so I'm bidding 3S, as a cue-bid for either hearts or clubs. 4H I think should show a horrible minimum
  10. 3NT is somewhat fruity on those cards. Mind you, EW look good for making 3S. And 4H shouldn't be 3 down. If N had banged down the AK of hearts it would have made possibly up 1, losing 1S, 1D and not much more. Mind you, this is looking at it double dummy.
  11. Opening 4S is wrong, if you want to get to slam. This is a sound 1S opener. With that dummy, after 4S P to me, I would pass like a shot and hope to not get doubled. To be fair though, I'm not sure how I would get to 6S on these cards. Playing 2/1 1S 2C 2S 3C 3S 4D (is this a cue? Probably) 4H 4NT 5H 6S but I'm not happy with the auction, especially since West has a void in East's main suit.
  12. And another point: when partner responds 1S to 1D, there are many hands he can have. AQTxxxxx in spades for one. When partner opens 1NT, he has declared his hand to be balanced. Whilst he may have a 5 card suit, it is unlikely, and the chances of him having a 6 card heart suit are nil.
  13. Presumably the X of 2C showed a) genuine clubs worth competing in and b ) extras. Therefore by my reckoning I've already bid my hand. I do have a lot of losers and a partner who rates to have zilch. So I pass
  14. What I like to do is the following: If I jump to 4 of a minor (when 3 of a minor would have been forcing) then it is RKCB for the minor. E.g. playing 2/1, 1S 2C 4C If I pull 3NT to 4 of a minor, it is forcing, setting trumps and asking for a cue-bid. (direct 4NT after this 4 of a minor is to play)
  15. Yes, 4C is wrong because partner will put it back to 4H. Especially as partner won't have very many clubs on this auction. If you say she should have sat for it on this hand, why shouldn't she be void in clubs (and as a result is taking the push to the 3 level). Should she still sit for it with that hand?
  16. Typically, I play this as either 12-14 ish or 18-19. A jump to 3NT now would show 15-17 ish. Quite possibly unbalanced as well. The idea being that if I now bid 3NT, partner may have a hand that would bid 4NT now showing an 18-19 hand. Not sure if you play this the same way, but if 2C is 100% GF, then I don't see why not.
  17. Yes, basically you should respond in the major if the auction might proceed: 1C 1D 1NT and you don't have enough to now bid 2H/S, since partner will bypass a major to rebid in NT if he's balanced. Having said that, I would draw the line somewhere. Holding Kx xxxx KQJxxx x I would respond 1D and ignore the heart suit unless partner could bid it himself.
  18. Yes, easy pass. 2NT shows about an ace more than this (at least), and double is revolting. Partner isn't barred from bidding with a suitable hand.
  19. I'm going to be different and pass. It looks as though partner has a similar heart length to me from the absence of a raise or any interest from RHO. Add in the absence of any aces, and I'm going to go quietly. I've been wrong before....
  20. 1) Pass. 2S for me shows a better hand. Partner isn't barred from bidding if he has something to bid on, and my diamond holding suggests that the auction won't be jammed by a huge amount. 2) I'm doubling this on principle. I'm assuming partner's pass means "I don't know what's going on with this highly warped auction", but 7NT is too much of a blind leap of faith here. 3) This calls for an attacking lead, so a small diamond from me.
  21. Ah yes, the Kaplin Inversion. Or at least a modification of it. The trouble is with 1H P 1S P 2S showing 4 spades 5 hearts and a minimum is that responder might not like spades at all, and want to go back to 2H. Which of course can't be done. What is typically done is that with 4-5-x-x hands, after 1H 1S opener bids 1NT to show 45 shape (as the 1S bidder can have 4 spades, just not 5), and with balanced hands (5332) opener bids his 3 card minor as if it had gone 1H P 1NT. This is more of a problem than 1H 1NT(showing 5+ spades) 2NT having a wrong sided contract, since the 1H 1NT 2NT (in standard methods) is much more likely to wrong-side it.
  22. Yes, you should reopen with a double whenever: a) it is a possibility that partner may have a penalty double :) you would have sat for it had partner made it Both a and b apply, so I bring out the x card
  23. I once claimed "you can take all your hearts, I have the rest" when playing 3NT with JT9 opposite a void. LHO (silent throughout the auction) had KQ to 8 and no entry, RHO had Ax. Director ruled that opps could not take 8 tricks since they could not possibly be made, and said that I could make all of my top tricks.
  24. No, but it's not a pass of 4H X either. The actual auction was: 1H P 4H X and you left it in when we were making something (I forget which)
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