humilities

[hv=pc=n&s=s2hat32dat972caqj&d=s&v=b&b=7&a=1dp2cp2dp3cp3hp4np]133|200[/hv] Our agreements; 2/1 is 100% forcing to game We play Kickback for the minors 2D is our generic rebid showing 5+D any strength - allowing partner to further describe (a 4-4 major fit is still possible) 3C is natural 3H is natural and often an attempt to get to 3NT (unless later clarified) 4NT is natural and invitational - at least an Ace more than a minimum Clearly my 3H bid has derailed this auction. I was on my way to 6 or 7 clubs and wanted to hear if we had wasted spade cards - I was planning to bid 4C over 3NT and Kickback over 4C. I was not ready for the 4NT bid (and not even sure what to do over 4D which shows how poorly I thought this out). Now I really want to bid the grand but partner doesn't even know what's trumps! I'd like to bid 5H looking for a 5S bid - but we are not on firm ground here. Should partner know to cue bid his A of spades even if he doesn't know what is going on? Is there anything else I could be looking for? Any other ideas? ps: next time SET THE FREAKING TRUMP SUIT!

[hv=pc=n&s=sakq9ha932dkjt32c&n=s2hq4da98765ckqt2&d=n&v=b&b=13&a=1dp1hp2cp2sp3dp]266|200[/hv] Question: would (should) 5C be exclusion for clubs now? Is this firm ground? (I would have been concerned that pass was possible) Is there any other way to determine if partner has the Ace of trumps? Our agreements: - 2S was 4th suit (100%) forcing to game - 3D by North was just bidding out his shape - he promises at least 6-4 for this (3C would have been his fallback with a 5-4 and no other bid) - 4C/4D by South now would be natural and set trumps - We play kickback so 4H by South now would be RKC for Diamonds. - there is no way for South to immediately bid RKC for clubs over 3D but he could do it after bidding 4C (or could have done it directly over 2C) Thanks for your input.

[hv=pc=n&s=sak2hq3d2cakq5432&n=s9765hak976dj63cj&d=n&v=e&b=9&a=pp1cp1h2d3dp3sp4sppp]266|200[/hv] Questions; - South's second bid is awkward. If he doubles (feels more natural) can he later talk his partner out of hearts? - If South bids 4C over 3S, what should North do? - Is there an intelligent way to get to 6C? - Is South's 4S bid justifiable at matchpoints? Our agreements: - We play support doubles ... 99% of hands with 3card support make a support X. - We have not discussed if you can get out of a support X (meaning make a later bid indicating that you really didn't have 3cd support). - Our general rule is that in competition cue bids force game and almost all other bids are passable. - We play good/bad 2NT on this auction but the good (direct 3C) is still passable by a minimum responder. Special thanks to anyone that is helpful enough (or bored at work enough) to read all of the above :)

[hv=pc=n&s=sa82hk2daj732cjt2&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1cp1h]133|200[/hv] Seems like it's between 2D and X. Your agreement here is that double promises 4S. If it is relevant, partner is not overly aggressive with his 1 level overcalls (you think he is a tad conservative).

Partnership is new to Kickback, we've had a couple questionable (uncontested) auctions recently: (Auction 1) 1C - 1D 3NT - 4D? 3NT= good hand, running clubs, little interest in responder's suit. Obviously if partner had bid a major then 4D would be KB for clubs ... but what about when he bids 1D? (Auction 2) 1C - 1S 3C - 3D 3NT - 4D? 4C by responder would have been a slam try (with opener now able to bid 4D KB if he wished). But what if responder need to bid RKC, 4D sure sounds natural here...

[hv=pc=n&s=saQ976hj43dk2cqt2&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1hdp]133|200[/hv] If you cue bid is it because you don't want to miss slam, or because jumping to 4S requires 6? Thanks.

Sorry, the diagram is correct my comment was not (I have fixed it). I am asking about North's decision, he has to find a bid over 2NT and I'm trying to figure out how he gets to the correct black suit fit (if there is only one).

edit: the diagram came out funny - east should be at the top as North is on opening lead and east is dummy [hv=pc=n&n=sqt87haj9d2ckjt93&e=s432h32dat9763cq2&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1cp1h2dd5d5hpp6ddppp]266|200[/hv] We play standard signals. Opponents have inadvisably sacrificed in 6Dx provided we can get all of our tricks. (rightly or wrongly) North starts with the A then J of hearts to Souths 10 and K (I think we have just set up West's Q for a possible discard). South continues with the A of clubs. Which is the proper club to play to ensure South continues with a club and not a spade? 1. Is the J strongly encouraging? Or does it promise J10 but no K? 2. Should we play the 10 and not worry about partner thinking we do not have the J? or perhaps the 9? 3. What if North's clubs were KJ1043 ... do the same priniciples apply without the 9? Thank you for helping with such a basic question.

[hv=pc=n&s=skt82hq2daj2cq652&n=saq93haj83d3cak83&d=s&v=n&b=15&a=1c2n]266|200[/hv] Your thoughts about North's decision; - He can show spades (which we play promises 5) but partner will bid 3S with a 3-2-3-5 hand (or possibly with 3-3-3-4, etc) - He can show a club raise but may catch partner with a 4-3-3-3 hand or similar (obviously on this hand North can't get it wrong, but this is the hand that spurred the conversation) We have no specific agreements regarding doubling and then pulling to a suit ... are there any common agreements there that would help find the right 4-4 fit?

Matchpoints, We are NV, they are VUL, opponents are unknown. We play a pretty normal 2/1. x xxx AKQxx AQ9x 1D P 1S (3H) ??

Thank you all for the input. I am not shooting for a 50% game :) Like you, I go against the field (in bidding or play) whenever I deem the chances of success outweigh the possibility of a poor score. When I have a 9 card fit missing for the Q I play for the drop like everyone else - However when there has been a 3S preempt I finesse even though in this particular field the old ladies are still playing for the drop. Obviously it's a judgement call - on this hand I thought double was superior enough to 4S that it merited going against the field. Clearly many disagree - which is good, I need this feedback I'm trying to learn when I'm wrong about these things...

[hv=pc=n&s=skqj43h5dakj2ck76&d=w&v=b&b=8&a=1hp4h]133|200[/hv] Game all, Matchpoints. I know this room and the room is bidding 4♠. Double would not even occur to 90% of them. Nevertheless I feel that double might be superior enough to merit going anti-field. What do you think? Thanks for your input.

The opponents bid to 3NT via: [hv=pc=n&s=s432haqt52d52cj32&e=saqt6h76dqt3ckqt4&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1dp1sp1np3nppp]266|200[/hv] Partner (shockingly!) leads your suit with the 3 of ♥ - you win the Ace and declarer follows with the 4. We do not lead low against NT without an honor so we can mark partner with the K or J or both. Like a good little student, I you return your original 4th best - the 5 (just as every bridge book you have ever read has told you to do.) Declarer plays the 9 and partner wins the Jack. Partner proceeds to go into the tank. Clearly he has KJ83 and thinks you started with A52. He is hesitant to cash the K and lose tempo while setting up a trick for declarer. Eventually he decides to switch. Is there any solution to this? Would leading the 2 be the correct play? Are we now fooling partner that Hearts are 4-4? Might he now inadvertantly block the suit if he thinks he wants to be on lead at trick 5? ***** One other note .. upon retrospect I think the Q at trick one is the correct play (catering to partner leading from Jxx). But this doesn't change the trick 2 issue at all .. when I lead back the 5 (declarer playing the 9) and partner winning the J, won't he now be playing declarer for A109x and abandon the suit? The 5 leads to the same ambiguity. Is the expert rule still "original 4th best" or is there any better way to deal with this? All of my bridge books are 20+ years old lol please tell me someone has come up with something better!

Playing 2/1 (forcing NT), 3♠X makes, as does 5♦. [hv=pc=n&s=s2h86dat984ca9875&n=sa9hakj32dqj52ct2&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1hp1n3sppdppp]266|200[/hv]

[hv=pc=n&s=skqjh973dk9742c97&n=sa852hq2dcakt8642&d=n&v=b&b=13&a=1c1hp2h3cp3dppp]266|200[/hv] IMPs, game all, vanilla 2/1. South didn't think his flat hand with bad suit hand was good enough for an immediate 2♦ and didn't like X. North feared a total misfit opposite a hand that couldn't bid 2♦ or X, and thought running to 4♣ would invite a double. Of course clubs are 2-2 and game is cold - but any number of ♣ is better than 3♦.

[hv=pc=n&s=sahkq54daqtckq765&d=n&v=b&b=13&a=1sp2cp2np]133|200|IMPs[/hv] We play 2NT as 12-14 balanced (or 18-19) with stops in the unbid suits and normally not 3card support for partner's suit. I think some play 4♣ as gerber here .. but I think I see more value as natural (solid suit, sets trump and demands cue bid). But since 4NT is clearly quantitative, how can we ask for aces? As a side note .. are you insisting on slam on this hand? Or inviting?

[hv=pc=n&s=skhat9543dk963ck2&n=sq87542h7daqt4ca5&d=e&v=b&b=10&a=1c1hp1sp2hppp]266|200|IMPs[/hv] All actions seem reasonable, how would you get to 5♦? (ps: new partnership, South stated before play: "WJS always" whatever that means, but presumably it means N can't bid 2♠ at his first bid should he wish to do so)

[hv=pc=n&s=sat7543h43d632ck5&d=e&v=n&b=2&a=1c]133|200|IMPs[/hv] 1♠, 2♠, or pass?

[hv=pc=n&s=sa62hdqt6432cq987&d=n&v=e&b=9&a=p1h]133|200|IMPs[/hv] Seems definitely wrong to pass .. 2♦ seems wrong. Do we just suck it up and bid 3♦ all the while praying partner doesn't take a phantom sacrifice?

Presumably 3♠ is an attempt to get to 3NT but it doesn't seem likely that it's the best spot. 4♣ seems like the natural bid but with a pickup partner I'm wondering if there is any doubt that it is forcing. Double also seems very possible.

[hv=pc=n&s=sk2h2dkq2ckqt9532&d=n&v=n&b=5&a=1d2h3c3hpp]133|200|IMPS[/hv] Is 4♣ 100% forcing? How about 4♦? I assume 4NT pick a minor? Maybe this problem is very easy but I'm curious to hear any opinions.

THanks for the input all. Perhaps I should have been more specific. I meant "strongly penalty oriented" as obviously you do not have a Heart stack :) This was the hand: [hv=pc=n&s=sajthq96dq532c986&n=sk987hktda98cakj3&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1hdp1n2hdp]266|200[/hv] Back in the day .. the second double after a 1NT bid was primarily headhunting .. however today my partner took it for takeout - as did this poll. When did this change? And I'm curious .. why? Once partner bids 1NT, at what point do you get to collect 800 when they continue to bid foolishly? Or nowadays are you allowed to bid with impunity even when the opponents bid NT after you?

[hv=pc=n&s=sajthq96dq532c986&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1hdp1n2hdp]133|200|IMPS[/hv] I've been away fromt he game a while, is it still "standard" to play North's second Double as penalty? It was back in the day :) but I don't know if things have changed. Are you sitting?

[hv=pc=n&s=skj83ha8dkj32ca75&d=w&v=b&b=4&a=1dp1h]133|200[/hv] Matchpoints, both sides Vul, unknown opponents playing 2/1. Your call?

Thanks .. I held the South hand and felt it was a clear pass. However north held:[hv=pc=n&n=sakj732ha53dt32c2]133|100[/hv] and also felt it was a pass. That seemed reasonable too. 4♠ makes due to a fortunate blackage in the D suit, but even +140 or -50 would have been better than the big fat 0 we got for -110.