4321

Sure. So i want to declare NT without showing spades. Such auction ask spade lead(s) which give me one or more temps.

Showing spades asks club lead. If pard has Axx_ or Kxx_ in clubs - good. And if not?

2NT shld be correct openin, i think. 1. No reason to show diamonds, we don't seek 6 or 7d after partner's pass. 2. We prepare to play from our strong hand. 3. We could find our spade easy. But we could not find 3d. So? Probability of 3d is not high. May be 3c or 3H... But now, after 1d opening we can hide our spade and expect spade lead. 3NT with spade fit better than 2/3NT from weak partner's hand after club lead.

You are winner. 3NT wins too.

Probability of finding fit in spade ~ 1/4. So we'll play NT by weak hand after club lead. Could be some problems...

AKQx_Qx_AQ9xx_QJ (pass) - pass - (pass) - 1♦ (pass) - 1♥ - (pass) - ? If your answer depends on the zone and the method of calculation, please say.

IMPs, you are vulnerable. Axx_x_xx_KQJTxxx. 1. Open please. 2. (pass) - ? 3. (pass) - pass - (pass) - ?

Sorry but I had not two days for choosing a bid. 1d - 1h 2c - 2s 3s - 4d ??

What do you think about answer from my partner? Expecting 1h I opened, because my Q in partner's longer should be not so bad. ...because may be difficult to bid something after pass opening. ...because I remember the system in guess situations to explain to my partner my possible missguesses. --------------------------- So: 1d - 1h 2c - 2s ?

Some more questions will follow.

Scrambling is in use after CONSTRUCTIVE opponent's bids, such as (1♠) - pass - (2♠) - 2nt - ... when 2nt can non be natural. IMHO Lebensohl is not necessary here too. Another four questions: 1. Can W have a void in spades? 2. Can S have three spades and 12-13 hcp? Was his pass good in this case? 3. What do you think about The Rule Of Seven by Mike Lawrence? 4. What do you think about 3nt?

Match (IMPs), EW, W. pass - (2♠) - pass - (pass) DBL - pass - ?? 2♠ = weak two. The first question is, what should have W? The second - what must bid E with A5432_QJ_KQ85_J5 ?

+1. But I expect a singleton in partner's hand (3♥ - pass - pass). So my Ass is good. 6♦.

1♦ - (1♥) - pass - (2♣) ?? We have very strong hand. We DBL with 4-x-4-x and bid 2♠ with 4-6. What should we do with 4-5? May be vulnerability deciding that? Apropos, how strong should be our hand?

Some little notes. 1. RHO is passed too, so their constructive intentions are not high too. 2. We may expect ~14 probable points on the left (after our hand) and ~7 points on the right. 3. We expect statistical dubleton, pre-empting on the 2nd 3rd and 4th level with a suit. So TNT with us. Weak 1nt pre-empting doesn't promise nothing. 4. All this points are not secrets for opponents.

What do you think about weak 1nt opening (12-14) in white zona after two passes?

May be, but is this principle common for Main Bridge Club of BBO? How to be sure? Here is a point. Here is my variant: 1d - 1s 2h - 3c 3s - 3n 4d - 6d/n 3n - stronger than 3n without 4th suit, expecting quantitive invit 4n or Gerber, 4d - good diamonds 6+, 6d/n - normal bid with figur addition in diamonds and not minimal strengs.

Thanks all, especially Free and P Marlowe, because I think the same. :blink: "The first opinion is always true" (international proverb). http://www.bridgeguys.com/Conventions/FourthSuitForcing.html As we can see, spade repeat (2s or 3s) should show spade 6+ or very good 5. It's possible to bid 3d instead 3s, but it should be very intuitive bid, because opener, remembering the variation of the rule of symmetric by E.Culbertson (if I hold a long suit, may be my partner holds a long suit too), hopes to find 5 in spade in partner's hand. + he haven't see slam intentions in that moment. That 9% slam was wined. Fortuna...

SAYC, IMPs, NS (BBO, Hand 5, 24.09.10 turned on 180) T82_AKQ5_AKJ983_- -------- AJ54_J62_Q4_AQ85 1♦ -- 1♠ 2♥ -- 3♣! 3♠ -- 4NT 6♣ -- 6♠ pass 3♣ = 4th suit, not discussed, 6♣ = void with two key cards.