1axbycz1

http://www.bridgebase.com/tools/handviewer.html?bbo=y&lin=pn%7C1axbycz1%2CRobot%2CRobot%2CRobot%7Cst%7C%7Cmd%7C3S952HK2DJT964C632%2CSK63H97DAQ73CAK97%2CS84HAQJT8654DK8C8%2CSAQJT7H3D52CQJT54%7Csv%7CE%7Cah%7CBoard%209%7Cmb%7C4H%7Can%7CPreempt%20--%207%2B%20%21H%3B%2011-%20HCP%3B%203%2B%20total%20points%7Cmb%7CP%7Cmb%7CP%7Cmb%7CD%7Can%7CTakeout%20double%20--%203-5%20%21C%3B%203-5%20%21D%3B%202-%20%21H%3B%203-4%20%21S%3B%2015%2B%20total%20points%7Cmb%7CP%7Cmb%7C5H%7Can%7C11%2B%20total%20points%3B%20forcing%7Cmb%7CP%7Cmb%7CP%7Cmb%7CP%7Cpc%7CHK%7Cpc%7CH7%7Cpc%7CH8%7Cpc%7CH3%7Cpc%7CH2%7Cpc%7CH9%7Cpc%7CHA%7Cpc%7CC5%7Cpc%7CS8%7Cpc%7CS7%7Cpc%7CS2%7Cpc%7CSK%7Cpc%7CC9%7Cpc%7CC8%7Cpc%7CC4%7Cpc%7CC2%7Cpc%7CC7%7Cpc%7CHT%7Cpc%7CCT%7Cpc%7CC3%7Cpc%7CS4%7Cpc%7CSA%7Cpc%7CS5%7Cpc%7CS6%7Cpc%7CCQ%7Cpc%7CC6%7Cpc%7CCA%7Cpc%7CD8%7Cpc%7CS3%7Cpc%7CDK%7Cpc%7CST%7Cpc%7CS9%7Cpc%7CD2%7Cpc%7CD9%7Cpc%7CDA%7Cpc%7CHJ%7Cpc%7CHQ%7Cpc%7CD5%7Cpc%7CD4%7Cpc%7CD7%7Cpc%7CH4%7Cpc%7CCJ%7Cpc%7CD6%7Cpc%7CD3%7Cpc%7CH6%7Cpc%7CSJ%7Cpc%7CDT%7Cpc%7CDQ%7Cpc%7CH5%7Cpc%7CSQ%7Cpc%7CDJ%7Cpc%7CCK%7C The bidding speaks for itself.

Can you explain how you get the entries to ruff spades?

[hv=pc=n&s=sk742hkq74d92cj74&n=sthaj85dak8643cqt&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1dp1hp3hp4hppp]266|200[/hv] IMPs scoring. W leads ♣A, then ♠A, then a small ♣ to East's king. After that a low ♠ is returned. (I was playing with 3 robots, if that matters.) My plan: rise K, play 2 rounds of diamonds and ruff a third round hoping to establish the suit. This plan works if: 1. W has 3 diamonds and E has 2, trumps not 5-0, or 2. W has 2 diamonds and E has 3, in which the 3rd round must be ruffed high. so this needs trumps 3-2 Anyone has a better line?

One more comment I have about hand 1: After I pull 2 rounds of trump, playing the ♠Q is pretty much playing for the ♣A to be with W. If you want to play for the ♣A to be with E, you should pull all the trumps and then play ♠Q. So yes, after the second round of trump, you're forced to guess who has the ♣A.

Hand 2 seems a lot more tricky than hand 1. This is my (probably futile) attempt: If W has a singleton ♣ that isn't the K there's a good chance he'll lead it, so I assume otherwise. I win trick 1 in dummy and play a low club to the Q. Case 1: the finesse wins. I assume the ♣K is onside. (If a highly skilled defender knows how to hold up I'll concede.) Now take a trump finesse. If it's onside you tend to make +1 most of the time quite easily. If it's offside: -If a spade is returned, win A and ruff the losing spade in dummy, cash all top trumps in dummy, then take the clubs finesse again. -If a club is returned, take the finesse, pull trumps, you get your 10 tricks -If a diamond is returned, I'll duck (though I don't think it really matters). Can always win the 3rd round of diamond and then pull trumps. So when the ♣ finesse works you usually make.... Case 2: the finesse loses. Once I get on lead I cash ♥A and play a ♦ to K. If that loses I can only hope that the trump Q is onside. If it wins I now play a trump from hand, taking a finesse this time. If this finesse loses I'll have to ruff a ♠ high and pull the trumps, then cashing the ♣ to make. Conclusion: among the 3 things, ♣K, ♦A, ♥Q, if one of them is onside I make most of the time, but if all are off I lose. Anyone has a better line?

Hand 1: First count tricks. We have 4 hearts and 5 diamonds, for a total of 9 top tricks. The 10th trick can come from knocking out ♠A or if the ♣A is onside. However, there is the threat of risking a ♦ ruff, the lead looks like a singleton. Taking this into account, I would play this way: After winning the first diamond trick, I cash ♥A and then ♥J. If trumps are 3-2 simply pull all the trumps and then play a ♠. If E discards on the second round of trump, I switch to the ♠Q immediately. If E wins and plays a small ♣, well this is where it gets tricky. I'll take a bet that the ♣A is with W, and duck. If W wins with the ♣Q (or J), and he holds the ♣A, then there is nothing he can do except to cash the A and there is no way he can get his ruff. However, if E holds the ♣A then another club would put the lead back to E and then he can get a ruff. Indeed, if E holds the ♣A, he could have done something different: play a ♦ to give W a ruff, and then get in on the ♣A to give W another ruff. So I assume that by switching the ♣, he doesn't have the A (is that sound?). I would think this hand is really about who you think has the ♣A. Just my try on the hand.

I feel that pass is an interesting option. One advantage is that opponents may stop in 4♦ when 5♦ is making. Bidding tends to push them higher.

[hv=pc=n&s=sq86h76d85cajt943&d=n&v=e&b=9&a=2h(11-15%2C%20%5B43%5D15%20or%204414%20or%204405)3d]133|200[/hv] The 2h opener shows a 11-15, and a 3-suiter short in diamonds(4315, 3415, 4414 or 4405). I know that each side has a 10-card fit. Now what? Partner will seldom act in this auction since I know much more about his hand than he knows about mine. Edit: Anyone going for pass or 3nt? Edit 2: This is IMPs scoring, if it matters.

Ah, yes. I know, the primary purpose of having a trump suit is to act as a stopper. And the stopper is only effective if we can ruff. I need to consider ruffing value as well. 4333 and 4333 belong into NTs and not the 8 card fit, right?

As a beginner, one of the first few rules I learnt is that 4M works better than 3N in the presence of an 8-card fit or better. However, as I gain experience, I realise that quite often, that only 9 tricks are available whether I play in major or NTs. Or worse still, sometimes I can only make 8 in a trump contract but 9 in NT. My question here: How to identify such situations? What is the general type of hand for this? I have identified one type; where the bidding shows that the opps have unbalanced hands and they are likely to take an early defensive ruff. What else?

I presume this is a short club, this may be a large part of your issue here in recognising the double fit, but what would 3♣ show over 2♠ by your methods ? I use that as long suit trial bid. As for my minor suit openings, 1m promises 3, 1♣ with 3-3, 1♦ with 4-4 or 5-5, else longer minor.

true. i didnt bid the 2♠, my partner did. anyway, if N really bid 3♠, S is most likely to make a game raise, with the same result.

[hv=pc=n&s=skqj8h762d87caj63&w=s974hk94dkjt65c84&n=sat32hajd2ckqt952&e=s65hqt853daq943c7&d=n&v=e&b=9&a=1cp1sp2sp3sp4sppp]399|300[/hv] At some tables E overcalled in ♦, some used michaels to show the red 2-suiter. Sitting south, I played the hand for +480. 4S+2=480 at 5 tables, 5Dx-2=500 at the other 1 table. Nobody bid the slam. N/S had 25 points in total but the slam is cold. Why? Is is because of the double fit? I evaluated my hand as simply invitational here. N is a minimum opener. So now, how to bid the hand a) if the opps simply pass throughout B) if the opps compete in ♦

Yes, I have learnt about those hand evaluation methods. I also learnt about trial bids (both long and short) to determine which are the relavant honors and which are not. KJxx opposite a void is hardly worth anything, and is sometimes no better than xxxx.

Wait, so 3♦ is an artifical bid and says nothing about the suit? And what if S accepts the invitation and replies in 4♥? What do you bid? "4-card support and 2 aces is always a Limit Raise for me." I want to clarify what you mean here. Do you make a limit raise here in competition or do you still make the limit raise when RHO passes?